Has prophesy been fulfilled in our lifetime?

Has prophesy been fulfilled in our lifetime?

This is an important and necessary question regarding the mystery view. Old Testament prophecy and New Testament prophecy centers around Israel. Both refer to specific events, times, seasons, persons, and places. New Testament statements fulfilled in this age or in our lifetime are of a different kind. For example, Second Timothy three describes "last time conditions." These are moral features that will characterize evil throughout this present period, up to the Rapture. That is likewise the character of what the Lord unfolds in Revelation 2" TARGET="_blank">Revelation 2 and 3. It may therefore be preferable to refer to this as the mystery view rather than the "prophetic view."

Distinguishing these two types of forecasts is crucial. We have no authority to state that present events fulfil the specific prophecies that center around Israel. After the Rapture, God will raise up prophets (Joel 2:28)" TARGET="_blank">Joel 2:28) whose ministry will be to identify, for example, events or persons saying, "this is that" (fulfilling specific Scriptures), as Peter did at Pentecost (Acts 2:16)." TARGET="_blank">Acts 2:16). The gift of prophecy is not functioning today. Those who attempt to exercise it have brought the subject of Bible prophecy into public shame.

D. Oliver
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Help me understand who the "holy brethren" are in Hebrews 3

Does "holy brethren, partakers of the heavenly calling" and "whose house are we" (Hebrews 3:1, 6)" TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 3:1, 6) refer to believers or unbelievers?

We cannot accept that these words are addressed to unbelievers for two very obvious reasons.

The nation of Israel never had a heavenly calling. The covenant with Abraham involved blessing for a heavenly and an earthly seed (Genesis 22:17;" TARGET="_blank">Genesis 22:17; Galatians 3:29)," TARGET="_blank">Galatians 3:29), but the promise through Jacob to Israel was for an earthly seed (Genesis 32:12)." TARGET="_blank">Genesis 32:12). Abraham had heavenly hopes (Hebrews 11:10)," TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 11:10), but his natural seed had earthly hopes.

Israel is never called "the house of God." His (God's) house in Hebrews 3:2" TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 3:2 refers to the tabernacle in which Moses was faithful. To make unbelievers a part of "His (Christ's) own house" is not possible. Therefore the two expressions in the question cannot refer to unbelievers. We believe they were believers saved out of Judaism.

We know the name of this epistle is not divinely inspired, but internal evidence is most convincing that it was written to a people who were very familiar with the law and the Levitical system. The majority of them were true to Christ; some were not and turned back. In 1 Corinthians 10:22," TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 10:22, going back to either the idol's temple or the Jewish altar was to provoke the Lord to jealousy. Distinction between the genuine and the false is clear in chapters 3, 6, 10 and 12. The most difficult passage, 5:11 to 6:10, becomes much easier to understand if we see the contrast between "they - them" referring to apostates, and .us - you", referring to genuine believers. "Beloved, we are persuaded better things of you, and things that accompany salvation." (6:9).

N. Crawford

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Does our Lord possess two natures?

Does our Lord possess two natures?

Is this a problem because we are told that we have two natures and these involve a conflict? No such conflict existed with our Lord. He is the indissoluble union of two distinct natures: all that deity is essentially and eternally; all that humanity is essentially and originally, without the possibility of sin.

Historically, the councils at Chalcedony (451) and Constantinople (553) addressed varied errors regarding the unique "substance" of our Lord Jesus Christ. The errors of the Apollinarians (the Lord had no human soul, not truly human), Nestorians (Jesus was indwelt by God, not truly God), and the Monophysites (meaning, "sole nature," endangering both His full humanity and full deity) forced clear "confessions" regarding the union of deity and humanity in our Lord. These "confessions" affirm the integrity of the union of the two natures in the one Person and the preservation of the characteristics of each nature "without confusion, change, division or separation." Jesus is "one and the same Christ, Son, Lord, Only-begotten, to be acknowledged in two natures, inconfusedly, unchangeably, indivisibly, inseparably; the distinction of natures, being by no means taken away by the union, but rather the property of each nature being preserved, and concurring in one Person and one Subsistence, not parted or divided into two persons, but one and the same Son, and only begotten, God the Word, the Lord Jesus Christ." This defines the hypostatic union of our Lord in which His underlying ("hupo") substance ("stasis") is the union of two eternally distinct "substances": He is of the same "substance" or essence as God ("very God of very God"), at the same time being of the same "substance" or essence as man ("very man of very man").

This expresses the profound implications of passages like Luke 1:31-35;" TARGET="_blank">Luke 1:31-35; John 1:1, 14;" TARGET="_blank">John 1:1, 14; Romans 9:5;" TARGET="_blank">Romans 9:5; Philippians 2:6-8;" TARGET="_blank">Philippians 2:6-8; Colossians 3:9;" TARGET="_blank">Colossians 3:9; Hebrews 1:3, 8." TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 1:3, 8.

D. Oliver
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Is our Bible with its sixty-six books complete?

Is our Bible with its sixty-six books complete?

It would be difficult to find a verse to prove that 66 books complete the Bible. However, careful research of the material shows that it is indeed complete with no other books to be added.

The Scriptures came not "by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved" by the Holy Spirit (2 Peter 1:21)." TARGET="_blank">2 Peter 1:21). Thus, the inerrant Word is divine and inspired (2 Timothy 3:16)," TARGET="_blank">2 Timothy 3:16), making it authoritative and binding.

God superintended the compilation of these manuscripts, so that 40 writers over approximately 1500 years produced the Bible.

The Lord quoted from these writings during His temptations (Luke 4:4, 8, 12)." TARGET="_blank">Luke 4:4, 8, 12). After His resurrection, He expounded "in all the Scriptures the things concerning Himself" (Luke 24:27)," TARGET="_blank">Luke 24:27), proving that these writings are the inspired Word of God.

Other versions such as the Septuagint (the Greek translation of the Hebrew Old Testament) and the Vulgate (the Latin translation of Old and New Testaments from the original languages) include a "collection of religious writings" known as the Apocrypha. However, there is no record that the Lord ever quoted from the Apocrypha. This, in itself, indicates these are only historical writings and not divinely inspired.

Thus these 66 books are a unique and complete volume, dovetailing perfectly without contradictions or errors. Let us value and study them, as God’s complete and inspired Word.

S. Wells
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What is binding Satan?

Binding Satan

Ministers who try to deliver people from problems often speak of binding Satan or binding a sickness or binding poverty or binding some other problem. A prayer to “bind” Satan usually takes the form of something like this:

“In the name of Jesus of Nazareth, the Son of God, I come against you, Satan, the Prince of Darkness to bind you, paralyzing your power, forbidding you to come near this person and influencing her thinking. I demand that you leave her immediately!”

By “binding” Satan, claims are made to be able to paralyze Satan or silence him or forbid him from influencing a person. As powerful as this commanding prayer may sound, it is unscriptural. Nobody in the history of the Bible ever spoke to Satan this way, nor are we commanded to speak to him like this. We resist Satan by teaching and obeying the truth of the Bible.

For a more detailed answer see the question:

Do Christians have the ability or the authority to bind Satan?

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Do we pray to the Holy Spirit or only to God the Father?

Do we pray to the Spirit or ask for the Spirit of God?

The Lord Jesus taught the disciples to pray to the Father in the name of the Lord Jesus (John 16:23)." TARGET="_blank">John 16:23). In the epistles we learn that we should pray in the Spirit (Ephesians 6:18)," TARGET="_blank">Ephesians 6:18), who helps us to pray intelligently and makes intercession for us (Romans 8:26, 27)." TARGET="_blank">Romans 8:26, 27). Before Pentecost, the Spirit came upon people temporarily to empower them for some special service. From the day of Pentecost onward, the Spirit came to indwell and seal each believer at the moment of conversion (Ephesians 1:13," TARGET="_blank">Ephesians 1:13, "upon believing"). We are never told in the epistles to pray for the Spirit, be cause He already indwells, us. We are told to be filled with the Spirit in order to serve God, and to walk in the Spirit in order to please God and not fulfill the lust of the flesh (Galatians 5:16)." TARGET="_blank">Galatians 5:16).

A. Joyce

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How is the Lord Jesus Christ a priest like Melchisedec?

What is the significance of "Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec" (Psalm 110:4)" TARGET="_blank">Psalm 110:4)?

Aaronic priests served in an earthly sanctuary with repeated sacrifices under an old covenant. By comparison and contrast, Christ’s priesthood is linked with a heavenly sanctuary, a final sacrifice, and an eternal covenant (Hebrews 7-10)." TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 7-10). Israel’s high priest transferred his office to his son. Our Great High Priest (4:14) is unique. Melchisedec, like the Son of God, did not derive His office from ancestors nor delivered it to successors, since his genealogy and posterity are not recorded (Genesis 14:18;" TARGET="_blank">Genesis 14:18; Hebrews 7:3)." TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 7:3). The Bible’s first priest, Melchisedec, is from a mold into which no one else fits. The original (the mold), in God’s purpose, is His Son.

Melchisedec was both a priest and king. The meaning of his name and title, King of Righteousness, King of Peace (7:2) is significant (Psalm 72:3;" TARGET="_blank">Psalm 72:3; Isaiah 60:17)." TARGET="_blank">Isaiah 60:17). He appears after the Bible’s first war and battle, involving a confederacy of kings (Genesis 14;" TARGET="_blank">Genesis 14; Psalm 2:2)." TARGET="_blank">Psalm 2:2). He assures Abram of God’s ability to give him the land of promise. All of this reminds us of a coming day when our Lord will be a priest on His throne (Zechariah 6:13)." TARGET="_blank">Zechariah 6:13). Until then, we enjoy the benefit of His priesthood.

The single, defining act of Melchisedec’s priesthood was blessing Abram (Hebrews 7:1)." TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 7:1). By lifting Abram’s vision to "the most high God, possessor of heaven and earth," he strengthened the pilgrim’s faith to withstand the coming trial.

Assured by an oath of the immutable God (Hebrews 7:21)," TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 7:21), our Lord’s priesthood "after the order of Melchisedec" is non-transferable, eternal, millennial, and spiritual, strengthening faith in the Unseen.

D. Oliver
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Are angels always men or are there women angels too?

Angels are neither male nor female since they are spirit beings. They don't need a body like a human does (Colossians 1:16)." TARGET="_blank">Colossians 1:16). However, they can and do appear to us in human form. Although not common, there are some examples of angel appearances to people in the Bible. These are all in the form of men. Abraham thought he was entertaining three men visitors in his tent in Genesis 18:1-20." TARGET="_blank">Genesis 18:1-20. Angels appeared to Lot in Genesis 19:1-20." TARGET="_blank">Genesis 19:1-20. Lot thought they were two men until they started to perform great acts of un-human power. Zechariah 5:9" TARGET="_blank">Zechariah 5:9 mentions two women, but not clearly identified as angels.

Mark 16:5" TARGET="_blank">Mark 16:5 shows us a young man at the tomb of Christ who was actually an angel. At the ascension of Christ in Acts 1:10" TARGET="_blank">Acts 1:10 , two men dressed in white appeared to the disciples to tell them that Jesus would return in the same glorious manner some day. These are presumed to be angels sent with a divine message.

Angels always appear as full-grown adults. Cherubs are not sweet, valentine card infants with wings. They are six-winged creatures who guard the throne of Christ (Isaiah 6:1-6)." TARGET="_blank">Isaiah 6:1-6). John, Isaiah and others who were in the presence of angels, typically reacted in fear and reverence.

Most references to angels in the Bible say nothing about wings, and in passages like Genesis 18-19," TARGET="_blank">Genesis 18-19, it is certain that no wings were visible.

Shad David Sluiter

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A Christian friend is "claiming her boys for Christ," even if the rapture occurs. Is this sound?

A Christian friend is "claiming her boys for Christ," even if the rapture occurs. Is this sound?

What Christian mother would not have a burden for her unbelieving sons, especially if they are young men? Saying anything to discourage this mother would be unkind. Pointing out a couple of problems in this sister’s thinking might help others, however.

The first is a matter that has appeared in these columns previously. Those who, during the tribulation, have "received not the love of the truth, that they might be saved" will be damned (2 Thessalonians 2:10," TARGET="_blank">2 Thessalonians 2:10, 12a). They did not believe the truth, but had pleasure in unrighteousness (v 12). By the middle of the seven year period, these will have had sufficient truth that they could have been saved, but they chose not to believe that truth. The result is a judgement assigned by God that, although they are still living, they will be deceived and subsequently damned. They will see the fulfillment of God’s Word in "the abomination of desolation" (Matthew 24:15)" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 24:15) and their doom will be sealed.

If during this period God will so severely judge these who have had 42 months of privilege, what makes us think that He will treat those with greater privilege (and have seen His Word fulfilled in the Rapture) differently? Those who know the gospel clearly in this age will have had clearer light, personal testimony urging them to accept salvation, and closer dealings of the Spirit with their conscience. Knowing the enmity of the human heart (Rom 8:7)" TARGET="_blank">Rom 8:7) and the wilfulness of those who resist the gospel (John 3:36" TARGET="_blank">John 3:36b), we should expect that God will deal as severely with the privileged who enter that seven year period as He will with the less privileged 42 months later. In light of this, I judge it to be a cruel unkindness to give anyone who knows the gospel message any hope that he can be saved after the Rapture.

The second concern is equally sensitive. "Claiming our children for Christ" because we have prayed for them could be sound. This could be a statement of confidence in God, knowing that He is kind (Luke 6:35)," TARGET="_blank">Luke 6:35), shares our concerns (1 Peter 5:7)," TARGET="_blank">1 Peter 5:7), and loves to answer prayer (Psalm 65:2)." TARGET="_blank">Psalm 65:2). This is proper and grows out of a vibrant relationship with our Father. Such a statement of trust does not, however, obligate our Father to do what we have asked; it is a matter of trusting Him.

On the other hand, if the statement amounts to a bargain with God, it is seriously misguided. If something a believer does places God under obligation or makes his children more "savable," will that child be saved by grace or by his parents’ works?

Praying fervently (James 5:16)" TARGET="_blank">James 5:16) and urgently for his children’s salvation is becoming for a Christian parent. Anything less would seem uninformed. At the same time, humble confidence in God is always sound.

David Oliver
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In Isaiah 53:12, who are the

In Isaiah 53:12," TARGET="_blank">Isaiah 53:12, who are the “great” and the “strong”, and in what way does God “divide” to the Messiah a portion with them?

Is it not probable that we place overmuch emphasis on these three words, and that we seek to get more out of them than perhaps they are meant to convey? “Divide” seems to suggest to our minds a cutting up into so many definite shares, of which Christ gets His, and certain others get theirs. But what if we use the word “assign” as is done in Darby’s Translation, or render the clause, “I will allot to Him a portion among the mighty”, as Gesenius does in his Lexicon! Either of these is quite correct as a rendering, and at the same time does not tie up our thoughts to an actual division of something into two or more parts. This should make it clear to us that the meaning may be no more than as follows: “I will assign to Him such a spoil as is usually that obtained by the great and the strong; and I will do so in recompense for (“Therefore”) His having suffered in littleness and weakness (as pictured in v. 7, etc.), and for (“because”) His having poured out His soul unto death (middle of v. 12).
Viewed in this way, the words “great” and “strong”, which are both plurals, need not refer to any particular individuals, but to the great and strong in general. Compare how the same two words are coupled together in such passages as Isaiah 8:7;" TARGET="_blank">Isaiah 8:7; Joel 2:2" TARGET="_blank">Joel 2:2 and Zecheriah 8:22; the word “many” in the first and last of these being the same Hebrew word as “great” in our verse.
The translators of the Septuagint, when turning the passage into Greek, rendered the second clause. “He shall divide the spoils OF the mighty”, and left out the “with” of the first clause also; thus suggesting the meaning to be a complete triumph over all His foes, however “many” or “mighty” they were. Various commentators agree with this view of the passage. But whether we take it thus, and think of the great and mighty ones as His enemies, amongst whom He stands out pre-eminent; the basic idea in the statement is much the same—that the One who stooped so low and who suffered so much, has been given a place and an honour beyond all others.

W.R.

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