What crowns will God give as rewards at the Judgment Seat of Christ?

What are the crowns that Christ will give to believers for their reward? At the Judgment Seat of Christ, the Lord will reward believers for what they have done in their life (1 Corinthians 3:11-15)." TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 3:11-15). From other Bible verses, we can see that the Lord will reward believers with several type of crowns...

1 Corinthians 9:25" TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 9:25 - "And every man that striveth for the mastery is temperate in all things. Now they do it to obtain a corruptible crown; but we an incorruptible."

1 Thessalonians 2:19" TARGET="_blank">1 Thessalonians 2:19 - "For what is our hope, or joy, or crown of rejoicing"

1 Timothy 4:8" TARGET="_blank">1 Timothy 4:8 - "Henceforth there is laid up for me a crown of righteousness, which the Lord, the righteous judge, shall give me at that day: and not to me only, but unto all them also that love his appearing."

James 1:12" TARGET="_blank">James 1:12 - "Blessed is the man that endureth temptation: for when he is tried, he shall receive the crown of life, which the Lord hath promised to them that love him."

1 Peter 5:4" TARGET="_blank">1 Peter 5:4 - "And when the chief Shepherd shall appear, ye shall receive a crown of glory that fadeth not away."

Revelation 2:10" TARGET="_blank">Revelation 2:10 - "Fear none of those things which thou shalt suffer: behold, the devil shall cast some of you into prison, that ye may be tried; and ye shall have tribulation ten days: be thou faithful unto death, and I will give thee a crown of life."

Revelation 4:4" TARGET="_blank">Revelation 4:4 - "And round about the throne were four and twenty seats: and upon the seats I saw four and twenty elders sitting, clothed in white raiment; and they had on their heads crowns of gold."

Other pages in this section

About this site

In Ezekiel 28, is the Garden of Eden the same as the home of Adam and Eve

In Ezekiel 28," TARGET="_blank">Ezekiel 28, is the Garden of Eden the same as the home of Adam and Eve?

This page was adapted from an answer at Truth and Tidings Magazine by David Oliver.

The Garden of Eden in Ezekiel 28" TARGET="_blank">Ezekiel 28 is the same as Genesis 2" TARGET="_blank">Genesis 2 and 3. Like Isaiah 14," TARGET="_blank">Isaiah 14, Ezekiel both compares Satan and the king of Tyre and also exposes "the hand behind the throne," Satan. Perhaps people talked of the perfection, wisdom, and beauty of the king of Tyre (Ezekiel 28:12)," TARGET="_blank">Ezekiel 28:12), but God uses those same words to describe Satan. Figuratively speaking, he was adorned with rich and rare gems in creation (v 13). He had the highest rank in God’s spirit creation, the winged cherub that defended the throne of God and had full access to the immediate presence of God (v 14). Though Satan was perfect, iniquity (due to pride, v 17; see also vv 1-10) "was found" in him (v 15). His abundance caused his problem, because he allowed it to fill him with pride; therefore, he was expelled from God’s presence and cast down to the earth (vv 16, 17). God now speaks to the king, so filled with abundance and likewise so lifted up with pride, yet he would be cast down in shame before other kings (v 17).

However, the statement about Satan’s being in Eden is out of chronological order. Perhaps it precedes the other statements in order to emphasize the greatest affront to God; in Eden Satan acted as a spoiler, attacking what God valued. So, God describes the king of Tyre as a spoiler of what should have been for God (v 18a). This was the immediate reason God razed his kingdom to the astonishment of all (vv 18, 19).

D. Oliver

Other pages in this section

About this site

Did Jephthah really offer his daughter as a burnt offering to the Lord?

Did Jephthah really offer his daughter as a burnt offering to the Lord? (Judges 11:29-40)." TARGET="_blank">Judges 11:29-40).

To this one would fain be able to reply, as not a few commentators and others have done, with a definite NO. Their reasons and arguments have been so clearly set forth in a recent article elsewhere, that we cannot here do better than enumerate them in the order given. (1) It is pointed out that human sacrifices were expressly forbidden by the Law (Deuteronomy 18: 9-10)." TARGET="_blank">Deuteronomy 18: 9-10). (2) In verse 31, the marginal reading “or” (of the A.V., not R.V., as stated) is adopted, as showing that two alternatives were in Jephthah’s mind: “Whatsoever cometh forth . . . shall surely be the Lord’s, or I will offer it up for a burnt offering.” And it is remarked that, according to Leviticus 27:4," TARGET="_blank">Leviticus 27:4, a person thus vowed might be redeemed for money. (3) The daughter’s words, “that I may bewail my virginity” (v. 37), are taken to imply that this was the real outcome of the vow, that she was pledged by her father to perpetual celibacy; and further proof of this is found in the statement of verse 39, “And she knew no man.” (4) At verse 40 the reading, “talk with”, of the A.V. margin, is given preference to the textual reading, “lament”; and it is suggested that for four days in each year the daughters of Israel went to talk with Jephthah’s daughter. We may hope, if only for Jephthah’s own sake, that this view is correct; but there are difficulties in connection with each of the points mentioned which may not be ignored. If we enumerate these also, we shall perhaps put the questioner and others in a position to form their own judgment as to what really took place. (1) While there can be no doubt as to the Lord’s disapproval of human sacrifices, our passage nowhere states that Jephthah’s action met with His approval; and the question is not what the Law forbade, but what a man such as Jephthah, who had lived for some time among the idolatrous Syrians of Tob, might say and might do. (2) The “and” in verse 31 is the common Hebrew particle which is similarly translated some thousands of times elsewhere; and although there are a few passages in which it is employed disjunctively and rendered, “or,” the wording of its context in such instances usually indicates this, which is not so here. Moreover, the statement, “shall surely be the Lord’s, or I will offer it up for a burnt offering,” is not very intelligible, because its being offered as a burnt offering did not mean that it was any less “the Lord’s.” Neither is it easy to understand why Jephthah should expect an animal, rather than a person, to be first out of the doors of his house to meet him on his return from the war. () Why should Jephthah’s daughter require two preliminary months to bewail her virginity, if she was going to have years of a lifetime afterwards to bewail it as much as she pleased? As to verse 39, it may be mentioned that the R.V. reads it, “And she had not known man.” (.) In verse 40, the R.V. rendering, “celebrate,” is probably the most exact of any, especially as the only other occurrence of this Hebrew word in the same form is in Judges 5:11," TARGET="_blank">Judges 5:11, where it is translated “rehearse.” If the meaning be that the daughters of Israel, while Jephthah’s daughter was still alive, went to talk with her, why should they have limited their conversations with her to four days in each year? Some may perhaps attach less importance to these difficulties than others will; but they exist, and must be faced fairly before one can confidently assert that Jephthah did not slay his daughter, but merely compelled her to remain unmarried.

W.R.

Other pages in this section

About this site

How can I understand the Bible book of Revelation?

Can you give some helps for understanding the book of Revelation?

(1) Remember it is a revelation of the Lord Jesus Christ. Look for Him everywhere.

(2) The book is divided into "the things which thou hast seen", "the things which are" and finally "the things which shall be hereafter" (1:19). This three-fold division of the book is helpful to gain an overview. Chapter 1 is the "things which thou hast seen," chapters 2 and 3 the "things which are," chapters 4-22 the "things hereafter."

(3) Care needs to be practiced not to take all events as occurring one right after the other. The book is made up of seven seals, trumpets and bowls. The seventh seal contains the seven trumpets; the seventh trumpet contains the seven bowls. Parenthesis dot the book: 7:1-17; 10:1-11; 14:1-13; 16:13-16; 19:1-6.

(4) Four great scenes occur in heaven and four on earth.

(5) Only interpret symbols by use of other portions of Scriptures. Most symbols in the Revelation appear elsewhere in Scripture. Their interpretation is given there. Interpret literally whenever possible and reasonable.

A. Higgins

Other pages in this section

About this site

How should a Christian dress for Church?

Does the Bible address the speech and dress of those speaking in the assembly?

Two principles guide us: those who speak are speaking for God (1 Peter 4: 11);" TARGET="_blank">1 Peter 4: 11); men like Elijah and John the Baptist, who spoke for God, dressed accordingly. Their clothing (2 Kings 1:8;" TARGET="_blank">2 Kings 1:8; Matthew 3:4)" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 3:4) was not luxurious (Matthew 11:8)" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 11:8) but rough (Zechariah 13:4)," TARGET="_blank">Zechariah 13:4), not reflecting the current trends but the character of their message. They were neither fashion plates or non-conformists. John preached repentance; his locale, locust diet, and leather girdle underlined this.

Clerical garb enhances position; flamboyant style flaunts personality; luxurious clothing exalts wealth; informal dress disparages reverence. Each of these in its own way dishonors Christ.

Nowadays, stiff formality may be distasteful to some and off-handedness or slang may appeal to others. However, such informality in our language and in our appearance conforms to the current spirit that belittles authority; it is therefore unsuitable for ministry and gospel preaching. Both the messenger and his message must underscore God's presence and the weight of speaking for God.

D. Oliver
Other pages in this section

About this site

Is the Spirit of God equal to the Father and the Son?

Is the Spirit of God equal to the Father and the Son?

Called "the Lord, the Spirit" (2 Corinthians 3:18," TARGET="_blank">2 Corinthians 3:18, JND), lying to Him and to God are equivalent (Acts 5:3, 4)." TARGET="_blank">Acts 5:3, 4). He is equated with God in the creation (Genesis 1:2; 2:2)," TARGET="_blank">Genesis 1:2; 2:2), incarnation (Luke 1:35;" TARGET="_blank">Luke 1:35; Galatians 4:4)," TARGET="_blank">Galatians 4:4), anointing (Acts 10:38)," TARGET="_blank">Acts 10:38), miracles (Matthew 12:28;" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 12:28; Luke 11:20)," TARGET="_blank">Luke 11:20), crucifixion (Hebrews 9:14)," TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 9:14), resurrection (Acts 3:15;" TARGET="_blank">Acts 3:15; 1 Peter 3:18)," TARGET="_blank">1 Peter 3:18), saints' resurrection (Romans 8:11;" TARGET="_blank">Romans 8:11;1 Corinthians 15:38," TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 15:38, and operation of gifts (1 Corinthians 12:6, 11)." TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 12:6, 11).

The Lord equates the Spirit's deity with His own by saying, "another (of the same kind) Comforter" (John 14:16)." TARGET="_blank">John 14:16). In 1 Corinthians 12" TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 12-4-6 the Spirit, the Lord and God are parallel (see also Matthew 28:29;" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 28:29; 2 Corinthians 13:14;" TARGET="_blank">2 Corinthians 13:14; 1 Peter 1:2;" TARGET="_blank">1 Peter 1:2; Jude 21)." TARGET="_blank">Jude 21). hi the same chapter, He "wills" (verse 11), as does God Games 1:18). His omnipresence and God's are equivalent (Psalm 139:7)." TARGET="_blank">Psalm 139:7). He is omniscient (1 Corinthians 2:11)" TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 2:11) and omnipotent (Romans 8:11;" TARGET="_blank">Romans 8:11; Matthew 22:29)." TARGET="_blank">Matthew 22:29).

He wills (John 3:8)," TARGET="_blank">John 3:8), knows (1 Corinthians 2:11)," TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 2:11), acts (Acts 16:7)," TARGET="_blank">Acts 16:7), speaks (1 Timothy 4:1)," TARGET="_blank">1 Timothy 4:1), and feels (Ephesians 4:30)." TARGET="_blank">Ephesians 4:30). He is a distinct person, though equal with the Father and Son. When the Son stood at Jordan, the Spirit descended, and the Father spoke from heaven, this distinction was visible (Matthew 3:16, 17," TARGET="_blank">Matthew 3:16, 17, paralleling the Old Testament revelation in Isaiah 42:1)." TARGET="_blank">Isaiah 42:1).

D. Oliver

Other pages in this section

About this site

Is the "fear of death" no longer satanic in its origin?

This page was adapted from an answer at Truth and Tidings Magazine by David Oliver.

Satan used Adam as the instrument to bring death into the world (Romans 5:12)." TARGET="_blank">Romans 5:12). So it may be said the Satan is the origin of death in the world. The fear of death, though, has human origins. However Satan can use it effectively as his tool.

The verse, therefore is not making a difference between those who lived before Christ and others who were born after the cross. It would be incorrect to say that believers or unbelievers in times before Christ were more afraid of death. However, it is correct to say that we have a much clearer understanding of Eternity and life after death. We should anticipate heaven more than even the greatest saints of the Old Testament.

D. Oliver

Other pages in this section

About this site

How do we understand the meaning of "only begotten" Son?

How do we understand the meaning of "only begotten" Son?

The word translated "only begotten" appears nine times in our New Testament. Luke uses it three times in his gospel to describe either an only daughter (8:42) or only son (7:12; 9:38). The term also describes Isaac (Heb 11:17)," TARGET="_blank">Heb 11:17), which is instructive, because Isaac was not the only son born to Abraham. He was the father of Ishmael and six other sons (Gen 25:2)." TARGET="_blank">Gen 25:2). Isaac, however, was uniquely precious (22:2), because God promised to fulfil His covenant with Abraham through Isaac.

The remaining references to "only begotten" are from John’s pen and all refer to the Lord Jesus. The first mention in John is significant. Although the other four references (1:18; 3:16, 18; 1Jo 4:9)" TARGET="_blank">1Jo 4:9) have an article ("the") with "only begotten," the first reference does not. "We beheld His glory, glory as of an only begotten of a Father" (John 1:14," TARGET="_blank">John 1:14, YLT). The absence of an article does not mean He was like an only begotten son. He was and is "the only begotten Son." As Mr. Newberry points out, the missing article indicates character. John saw in Christ every evidence that He was the Son uniquely precious to His Father and every reason why He should be thus treasured by His Father.

Although John never refers to believers as "sons of God," he does tell us that we are begotten (a related word) by God (1Jo 5:1, 18)." TARGET="_blank">1Jo 5:1, 18). Since many are begotten by God, the term "only begotten" cannot refer to the act of "begetting." It cannot therefore imply a beginning of the Son’s existence, or His becoming the Son of God, or His birth into humanity. "Only begotten" expresses the uniqueness of the Son in the essential value He has to the Father and in the central place He has in all that the Father has purposed.

For those who find the expression "only begotten" rather archaic, the words "only Son" convey much the same truth, although "unique Son" may express the truth more completely.

D. Oliver
Other pages in this section

About this site

Is mistreatment from other believers part of persecution?

Does "the fellowship of His sufferings" (Phi. 3:10)" TARGET="_blank">Phi. 3:10) include being misunderstood, and grieving because of the lack of spirituality and growth in other believers?

Perhaps the best way to consider this question is to differentiate suffering with the heart of Christ from suffering for the name of Christ.

God has always intended that His messengers will not only know the message they deliver but also understand the heart that sends the message. As God’s messengers - and all people - become better acquainted with their God, they are grieved for the things that grieve the heart of God. This includes the groaning of creation, the eternal grief of the lost, and the lack of development, discernment, and Christ-likeness in ourselves and other believers. This is suffering with the heart of Christ.

This does not, however, seem to be what Paul refers to in this passage. Rather, he is suffering for the name of Christ. Paul suffered both as a result of man’s resistance to the gospel (Acts 16:16-23)" TARGET="_blank">Acts 16:16-23) and also because of the Jews animosity against the Gentiles and the truth of Jew and Gentile’s being united in the Church the Body (Acts 22:21, 22;" TARGET="_blank">Acts 22:21, 22; Colossians 1:24)." TARGET="_blank">Colossians 1:24). This seems to better fit the context, which includes the possibility of martyrdom.

D. Oliver
Other pages in this section

About this site

Is the prodigal son a backsliding believer or a lost sinner?

Does the story of the prodigal illustrate the recovery of a swaying believer or the salvation of a lost sinner?

Most definitely the latter. The context confirms this. In Luke 15" TARGET="_blank">Luke 15: Christ replies to the Pharisees' criticism, "This man receiveth sinners." In verses 11-32, He compares His reception of such with the father's reception of a rebellious son. These sinners, portrayed in the prodigal, were not believers who strayed, but the ungodly. To construe that this interpretation makes God the "Father" of sinners simply overburdens the allegorical framework of the parable. Describing a straying believer as "dead" though, is going too far. Also, the term "lost," as chapter Luke 19:10" TARGET="_blank">Luke 19:10 shows, refers to the perishing, Further, the Savior interprets the sheep and silver as denoting 'one sinner that repenteth." Luke uses the word "sinner" 18 times, always describing the ungodly. Similarities do exist between the sinner's conversion and the saint's restoration, but some of the language true of one cannot be used of the other.

D. Gilliland

Other pages in this section

About this site

Main Menu