Should the discipline of one assembly be made known in another?

Should the discipline of one assembly be made known in another, if the disciplined person may socialize with others from that assembly?

Discipline, whether internal or requiring excommunication (as in 1 Corinthians 5)" TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 5) is to maintain the holiness of God's assembly (verses 4,5,13). Although believers grieve over a disciplined person, their social fellowship is restricted to preserve the assembly from ongoing sin (verse 6). Shepherds dealing with the erring person will encourage his restoration and instruct him to express his submission to God regarding this discipline (Matthew 18:15-20)" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 18:15-20) by refraining from socializing with believers (1 Corinthians 5:11)." TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 5:11). If the overseers sense a lack of repentance and therefore feel he will maintain social fellowship, perhaps with believers from another assembly, it is wise to advise the other assembly's oversight. The other overseers will privately advise those involved not to undermine the discipline imposed upon their friend. This action is to preserve the purity of and fellowship between the two assemblies.

Discipline in any assembly should be kept as private as possible in the hope of restoration to God and the saints (2 Corinthians 2:3-9)." TARGET="_blank">2 Corinthians 2:3-9). "Tell it not in Gath" (2 Samuel 1:20)" TARGET="_blank">2 Samuel 1:20) is one principle, suggesting that some news is too sad or shameful to spread. "The churches of Asia salute you" (1 Corinthians 16:19)" TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 16:19) is another principle, expressing unhindered fellowship among assemblies. Both principles must be maintained.

J. Smith

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Should our children be taught sex education in public schools?

Should our children be taught sex education in public schools?

In Old Testament days, God entrusted moral training to the family: "Thou shalt teach them diligently unto thy children, and shalt talk of them when thou sittest in thine house, and when thou walkest by the way, and when thou liest down, and when thou risest up" (Deuteronomy 6:7)." TARGET="_blank">Deuteronomy 6:7). God intended parents to discharge this responsibility diligently, deliberately (even when sitting to relax), decidedly (as inseparable from normal living as walking - or driving?), and daily (last thing at night, first thing in the morning). Since Paul (Ephesians 6:2)" TARGET="_blank">Ephesians 6:2) bases New Testament teaching about family relations on Old Testament principles, Christian parents still have the primary responsibility to teach their children morality. Scripture elevates such matters, although private and sensitive, to a place of honor (Hebrews 13:4)" TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 13:4) and consummate beauty (Ephesians 5:31, 32)." TARGET="_blank">Ephesians 5:31, 32). This moral training is a privilege and a responsibility.

Christian parents are dutybound to be aware of what is happening in their child's education. Since God's moral standards are "for our good always" (Deuteronomy 6:24)," TARGET="_blank">Deuteronomy 6:24), aren't parents responsible to protect their child if they discover that his classroom experience is (or will be) contrary to his home training?

D. Oliver

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What is the best selling Bible translation (verion) in the United States?

What is the best-selling Bible version in the USA?

Answer: The NIV.

Interesting trends: Shown below are sales rankings realeased by the Christian Booksellers Association for the years 2011, 2009 and 2006.

The Reina Valera 1960 (RVR 1960) moves up to number 6 from 10th place in 2006.

The English Standard Version (ESV) was first published in 2001 and currently holds fifth place in unit sales.

March 2011

Bible Translations - Based on Dollar Sales

1 New International Version various publishers - NIV
2 King James Version various publishers - KJV
3 New King James Version various publishers - NKJV
4 New Living Translation Tyndale - NLT
5 English Standard Version Crossway - ESV
6 Holman Christian Standard Bible B&H Publishing Group - HCSB
7 New American Standard Bible update various publishers - NASB
8 The Message Eugene Peterson, NavPress -
9 Reina Valera 1960 (Spanish) American Bible Society and licensees - RVR 1960
10 Amplified Bible Zondervan

March 2011
Bible Translations - Based on Unit Sales

1 New International Version various publishers
2 New Living Translation Tyndale
3 King James Version various publishers
4 New King James Version various publishers
5 English Standard Version Crossway
6 Reina Valera 1960 (Spanish) American Bible Society and licensees
7 H olman Christian Standard Bible B&H Publishing Group
8 The Message Eugene Peterson, NavPress
9 New American Standard Bible update various publishers
10 Other Translations

2009
Bible Translations - Based on Dollar Sales

   1. New International Version
   2. New King James Version
   3. King James Version
   4. New Living Translation
   5. English Standard Version
   6. Holman Christian Standard Bible
   7. New American Standard Bible updated
   8. The Message
   9. New International Readers Version
10. Today’s New International Version

2009
Bible Translations - Based on Unit Sales

   1. New International Version
   2. King James Version
   3. New King James Version
   4. New Living Translation
   5. English Standard Version
   6. Holman Christian Standard Bible
   7. The Message
   8. New International Readers Version
   9. New American Standard Bible updated
10. Reina Valera 1960 (Spanish)

2006 - Based on Unit Sales

   1. New International Version
   2. New King James Version
   3. King James Version
   4. New Living Translation
   5. English Standard Version
   6. Reina Valera 1960 (Spanish)
   7. Holman Christian Standard Bible
   8. New American Standard Bible updated
   9. The Message
10. New International Readers Version

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How did New Testament believers break bread?

How did New Testament believers break bread?

This question apparently arises from the difficulty of having thousands of believers in the Jerusalem assembly sharing from one loaf and one cup. We have the teaching in 1 Corinthians about what believers do in remembering the Lord and about the significance of what they do. The mechanics of how they distributed the cup and the loaf are not given. We are left to carry out the principles of Scripture in a way that most suitably displays all the truth of God. In the case of the cup and loaf, we are responsible to so act that we clearly display the significance of "breaking bread," as taught in chapters 10 and 11 of 1 Corinthians.

D. Oliver

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Was baptism required for salvation before Pentecost?

Was baptism required for salvation before Pentecost (Luke 3:3)" TARGET="_blank">Luke 3:3)?

Paul invokes "the law of first mention" in Romans when he notes that righteousness and faith are introduced together in the Scriptures. "Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness" (Romans 4:3)." TARGET="_blank">Romans 4:3). Paul is teaching that, from the beginning, being right with God was on the basis of faith, not by observing religious rites (circumcision) or obeying the Law (vv 1-13). Paul is supporting the text for Romans, "The just (those declared righteous by God) shall live by faith" (1:17). Being saved, which is inseparable from being declared righteous by God, is, has always been, and will always be on the basis of faith.

John the Baptist’s "baptism unto repentance" was not a baptism for salvation. Gabriel described John’s mission: "Many of the children of Israel shall he turn to the Lord their God. And he shall go before Him in the spirit and power of Elias, . . . to make ready a people prepared for the Lord" (Luke 1:16, 17)." TARGET="_blank">Luke 1:16, 17). He ministered to the nation to prepare from their number a people waiting for the Lord." John awakened the conscience of his hearers, whose question was, "What shall we do?" (3:10, 12, 14). His answer did not direct them to faith, as did Paul and Silas’ (Acts 16:30, 31)," TARGET="_blank">Acts 16:30, 31), but to works, to "bear fruits in keeping with repentance" (Luke 3:8" TARGET="_blank">Luke 3:8 ESV, with vv 11, 13, 14). Their baptism to repentance did not save them; it prepared them for John’s climactic message, "Behold the Lamb of God . . ." (John 1:29)." TARGET="_blank">John 1:29).

If the 12 disciples of John the Baptist in Ephesus (Acts 19:1-7)" TARGET="_blank">Acts 19:1-7) had been saved through John’s baptism, they would have received the Spirit and been part of the Church at Pentecost (1 Corinthians 12:13)." TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 12:13).

John’s baptism was an expression of submission to John’s message from God. It confirmed a recognition of guilt linked to their own sins and the sins of their nation. It said, in effect, "We need the coming Savior." For at least some who were baptized by John, their baptism unto repentance preceded faith in Christ.

D. Oliver
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Why do Christians drink wine at the Lord's Supper but at no other time?

Am I right in refusing to take the cup at the Lord’s Table because it is not “non-alcoholic”?

That the wine used by the Lord at the institution of the Lord’s Supper was the ordinary wine of the country, nothing but special pleading can deny. The vintage was then long past, so that any idea of fresh grape juice and water is ruled out. At Corinth (see 1 Corinthians 11" TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 11: ), the erroneous idea had crept in that the Lord’s Supper was to be a meal, and each brought his or her provisions, and “one was hungry and another drunken”! How does the apostle meet this scandal? Not by advocating the use of some substitute for the ordinary wine used, but by showing that it was not a meal, but a memorial act, for which a morsel of bread or a sup of wine sufficed. I am not advocating the habitual use of wine as a beverage; on the contrary, but for anyone to refuse to partake of the cup, which the Lord Himself instituted, because it contains wine, which some have abused, seems like setting up himself to be wiser than God, and to incur a serious responsibility.

W.H.

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How many people left Egypt in the Exodus?

Is it reasonable to think that around 2 million Israelites left Egypt during the Exodus?

In Exodus 12:37," TARGET="_blank">Exodus 12:37, the "strong men" numbered about 600,000. If, on average, most of these were married and had only 2 children, the population would be about 2 million.

A similar measurement comes from Numbers. The number of those who arrived at Sinai (Numbers 1:1)" TARGET="_blank">Numbers 1:1) included 603,550 males who were 20 years old or older (1:45, 46). We may approximate the remainder of the population (the children under 20 and the women) by comparing the 2 numberings of the Levites. In the first numbering (3:15), all the males from 1 month old totaled 22,000 (3:39). The second numbering counted the males from 30 to 50 (4:46-48) and totaled 8580. Therefore, approximately 40% of the total male population (22,000) was from 30 to 50 years old. About 20%, then, were 30 to 39 and another 20% were 40 to 50, although each 10 year group (birth -9, 10-20, etc.) is likely smaller than the preceding 10 year group. If we add another 20% for the 20 years old and upward, the first figure of 603,550 males (20 years old and upward) would be about 60% of the male population. In round figures, if 600,00 is 60" TARGET="_blank">is 60%, then the male population would be about 1 million. Adding an equal female population brings the figure to about 2 million.

D. Oliver
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What guidance does God

What guidance does God’s Word give on the role of an elder’s wife?

Although Paul gives qualities requisite in the wives of deacons (1 Timothy 3:11)," TARGET="_blank">1 Timothy 3:11), he does not do the same for overseers’ wives. Some biblical principles do provide guidance for her role, however.

When the Lord entrusted responsibility for subduing and having dominion over the earth, He gave it to them, the male and female (Genesis 1:28)," TARGET="_blank">Genesis 1:28), Adam and Eve. When that work began, Adam received the responsibility for tilling the garden, the commandment about what to eat, and the work of naming the animals (2:15, 16, 19, 20). It was not "good" for Adam to "be alone" in this, so the Lord made Eve (v18). Together, they were responsible for the work, but Adam carried out the work and Eve completed him in doing it.

An overseer’s wife, therefore, is an integral part of a unit that shares in overseeing the believers. Her husband does the work and she completes, supports, and enables him in this responsibility. She may have to help him make time for his work, and that will often mean sacrificing time she would enjoy with him. She will greatly enable him by living the Christian standards of God’s Word and seeking grace from the Lord to exemplify the qualities of a Christian wife. She may also help her husband by accompanying him when he gives spiritual counsel to assembly sisters. The overseers may ask her to assist them by dealing directly with a sister whose problem involves sensitive issues, difficult for men to address. At times, an elder’s wife may be able to provide insights that her husband’s male perspective lacks.

She will, at times, recognize that some matters her husband is handling must remain confidential and he is wise to keep them from her so as not to prejudice or overburden her. In any event, all she knows about her husband’s work is to remain between her and her husband. Information about oversight matters should never come from an overseer’s wife. Communicating such matters is his (or the oversight’s) responsibility, not hers.

D. Oliver
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Should I buy clients alcoholic drinks through a business expense account?

My business expects me to entertain clients for meals. At times they order alcoholic drinks. I feel as though I am paying for this although it comes out of an expense account. What should I do?

As a representative of your employer, you cannot dictate what a person may order from the menu in a restaurant unless your employer has made limitations. Your abstinence and your manner of conduct can often open an opportunity to explain why you do not take alcoholic beverages. Your paying - as a representative of your employer - is not an indication that you condone the practice. If, however, your work requires you to take clients out for the express purpose of visiting bars, clubs, or places of entertainment characterized by drinking or betting, you would be well advised to request to be relieved of this responsibility or to look for another job. You cannot maintain a clear testimony with this practice. "Let ours also learn to maintain good works for necessary uses, that I they be not unfruitful" (Titus 3:14)." TARGET="_blank">Titus 3:14).

W. Oliver

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Does the Bible say a virgin would have a child or simply a young maid?

Is there any good ground for the change, advocated by some, of the word “virgin” In Isaiah 7:14" TARGET="_blank">Isaiah 7:14 to “young married woman” or “young woman of marriageable age”?

I believe “virgin” can be shown to be the true rendering, along several lines of proof. It is significant that those who propose this change are mostly of Modernist tendencies. Such men deny the miraculous in general, and would gladly get rid of the Virgin Birth of our Lord, and create a discrepancy between Matthew 1:23" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 1:23 and our verse. Gesenius, the well-known author of the Hebrew and Chaldee Lexicon, a man with a strong Modernistic bias, says, “The true meaning of ‘almãh, (“virgin” in Isaiah 1:14)" TARGET="_blank">Isaiah 1:14) is a girl of marriageable age, with no special reference to her unspotted virginity, which is expressed,” he affirms, “by another word, bethulãh”; but that moral purity is surely taken for granted, unless definite proof is alleged to the contrary. He adds, “almãh is used of a youthful spouse recently married”; but the only place he quotes to prove this is the verse in question, Isaiah7:14," TARGET="_blank">Isaiah7:14, where he wants to rule out the other meaning, and thus begs the question. He also quotes Canticles - Song of Solomon 6:8" TARGET="_blank">Song of Solomon 6:8 to prove his point, but as virgins (‘almöth) are distinguished there from wives and concubines, we may ask what they do stand for, if not for unmarried girls of unspotted character? Gesenius admits, moreover, that his word bethülah” is sometimes clearly used of a woman newly married, e.g., in Joel 1:8." TARGET="_blank">Joel 1:8. If that word had been used in Isaiah 7:14" TARGET="_blank">Isaiah 7:14 he might still have found a loop-hole, and have quoted Joel to show that even was not conclusive. God, however, has raised up to oppose Gesenius a man of equal scholarship, namely, Dr. S. P. Tregelles, of humble evangelical faith, and also of European reputation as a Hebraist. He translated Gesenius’ Lexicon from the German, and has added notes in brackets to neutralise, where necessary, the bias of the Lexicon. The following note by Dr. Tregelles occurs under “‘almãh”: “Gesenius’ object in view in seeking to undermine the opinion, which would assign the signification of virgin to this word, is clearly to raise a discrepancy between Isaiah 7:14" TARGET="_blank">Isaiah 7:14 and Matthew 1:23." TARGET="_blank">Matthew 1:23. Nothing which has been stated (i.e. by Gesenius earlier in the article) does, however, really give us any ground for assigning another meaning. . . . ‘Almãh in the Punic language signifies virgin.
The absolute authority of the New Testament is, however, quite sufficient to settle the question to a Christian.” We may refer here to the words of Matthew 1:23" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 1:23: “Now all this was done that it might be fulfilled, which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which is by interpretation, God with us.” The Evangelist uses the ordinary Greek word, “parthenos,” for “virgin,” used too in Luke 1:27," TARGET="_blank">Luke 1:27, of the Virgin Mary. The Greek Version, the Septuagint, does sometimes translate the word “‘almãh” otherwise than by “parthenos,” but here in Isaiah 1:14," TARGET="_blank">Isaiah 1:14, where as Tregelles points out “it must to their minds have occasioned a difficulty,” they translate by the same word that we have in the Gospels. We may suppose these learned Jews—the translators of their own Scriptures—knew at least as much of Hebrew and Greek as Modernist scholars. Matthew does not appear to have quoted from the LXX, so is an independent witness. We do not, however, in any case, need even the authority of God-fearing scholars. This is a question in which “a wayfaring man, though a fool, shall not err.” Let us look at the other occurrences of the word, “‘almãh,” in the Old Testament. It is used in Genesis 24:43" TARGET="_blank">Genesis 24:43 of Rebecca—the prospective wife of Isaac. The other word, “bethülãh,l occurs in verse 16, as we might say “virgin” or “maid” indiscriminately. Miriam, in Exodus 2:8," TARGET="_blank">Exodus 2:8, is called an “ ‘almãh,” and she was clearly not a young married woman, but a maiden. This suits, too, in Proverbs 30:19." TARGET="_blank">Proverbs 30:19. Canticles 1:3 seems to demand the sense of virgins, as also chap. 6. 8, as we have seen. Psalm 68:25" TARGET="_blank">Psalm 68:25 we may take as neutral; we cannot affirm the damsels to be.yirgins, though they might have been. Then there is another consideration. The name to be given to the child—”Emmanuel,” “God with us”—goes a long way to justify the translation of “virgin” by our Translators and Revisers, as such a birth demanded extraordinary concomitant circumstances. The context, too, favours the same conclusion. Jehovah had offered Ahaz any sign he might choose to ask—”in the depth or in the height” above, that is anything comparable with the drying up of the Red Sea or the Jordan, or on the other hand, with Joshua’s long day. When Ahaz refused, the prophet replied, “The Lord Himself shall give you a sign. “Behold a* (literally “the”) virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and shall call his name Emmanuel.” Clearly God’s sign would be something extraordinarily arresting. How else would the Eternal Son of God enter into manhood except in the womb of a Virgin? The birth of a son to a young married woman, far from being an arresting sign, would not be a sign at all, but the most
natural of events.

* Heb.—”the Virgin,” that is the Virgin of prophecy, predestined one day to be the Virgin of history. When people talk of the Virgin to-day, they refer to the Mother of our Lord, and this expression is undoubtedly better.

W.H.

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