What does the Bible phrase mean - "The wicked shall be a ransom for the righteous"?

What is the meaning of Proverbs 21:18," TARGET="_blank">Proverbs 21:18, “The wicked shall be a ransom for the righteous, and the transgressor for the upright”?
Compare the following passages, in which a similar thought is more clearly expressed: “The righteous is delivered out of trouble, and the wicked cometh in his stead” (Proverbs 11: 8)." TARGET="_blank">Proverbs 11: 8).
“I gave Egypt for thy ransom, . . . I have loved thee, therefore will I give men for thee and people for thy life” (Isaiah 43:3, 4)." TARGET="_blank">Isaiah 43:3, 4).
“They hanged Haman on the gallows that he had prepared for Mordecai” (Esther 7:10)." TARGET="_blank">Esther 7:10).
“Those men which had accused Daniel. . . cast. . . into the den of lions” (Daniel 6:24)." TARGET="_blank">Daniel 6:24).
And note the use of the same word “ransom” in the Isaiah passage, and of “in his stead” in Proverbs 11." TARGET="_blank">Proverbs 11.
The above Scriptures, and others which might be added, suggest two things. First, that God may sometimes deliver His own at the cost of severe suffering, or even destruction, to the unsaved. Second, that the wicked at times suffer the very fate which they themselves had prepared for the righteous. Proverbs 21:18" TARGET="_blank">Proverbs 21:18 contains the first of these thoughts, and probably the second as well.
W.R.

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Is it scriptural to suggest that King Saul is now enjoying the rest of heaven?

Though we should shrink from usurping God’s prerogative in such matters, I fear I know no Scripture which would certainly justify such a statement. It is true he was chosen of God to be King over His people, at their demand, as indeed to-day “the powers that be are ordained of God,” but without any guarantee as to spiritual condition. He was chosen, but it was to suit the people’s choice; he was not a man after God’s own heart. He certainly manifested pleasing traits, now and again, especially at the commencement of his reign, when he comes before us as “a choice young man” :—in fact one of Adam’s best! and he was religious, too, as long as it was convenient, but as soon as any other interest intervened, he broke down lamentably, e.g., in the case of Amalek. He did prophesy on two occasions, but Matthew 7:21-23" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 7:21-23 declares plainly that even this is compatible with a dead faith.

Like the apostates of Hebrews 6," TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 6, he tasted of spiritual powers, but he was deprived of these for his sins. He could easily pass over disobedience to God’s commands (e.g., 1 Samuel 14:32)," TARGET="_blank">1 Samuel 14:32), but when, in the same chapter, the victor Jonathan innocently disobeyed his trivial prohibition, he would have slain him on the spot, had he had his way. The characteristic fruits he bore were envy, jealousy and a murderous spirit to all who opposed him. He had the whole house of Aaron mercilessly and unrighteously butchered in one day, though one of them did escape. He attempted David’s innocent life again and again. He deliberately broke God’s law in consulting the witch of Endor, and he died by his own hand, without any sign of repentance. It is a sad record. The fact that Samuel’s spirit said, “To-morrow thou and thy Sons shall be with me,” is not out of harmony with the belief that till our Lord’s resurrection the Paradise of the departed saints formed one compartment of Hades, the intermediate abode of all the dead.

W.H.

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Is respectable Christian behavior a prerequisite for baptism?

Is becoming Christian behavior a prerequisite for baptism?

Four cases come to mind. If a believer expects himself to be perfect before being baptized, he will wait for the Rapture. At that point, it will be too late to obey the Scriptures. Willingness to unreservedly obey the God’s Word is a sufficient condition for baptism (Acts 2:41)." TARGET="_blank">Acts 2:41). If a believer carelessly persists in self-will, he is not giving evidence that he is a Christian. For that person, baptism is inappropriate. If, in the third case, a person is obviously unaware of New Testament teaching regarding some aspects of Christian behavior, then patience, support, and counsel are appropriate, but not baptism. If he gladly receives further teaching, baptize him. Fourth, if a person still struggles with an addiction, such as smoking, baptizing him seems inconsistent. Baptism declares that the believer has died with Christ and been raised with Him to walk in "newness of life" (Romans 6:4)." TARGET="_blank">Romans 6:4). This newness of life is not merely a life that has changed, but a life energized by a different kind of power; it is resurrection life. To suffer under the power of a visible, addictive sin denies the power professed in baptism. Apart from daily salvation from the power of sin, any believer could founder. However, to baptize a person who is smoking, for instance, publically states that smoking is acceptable Christian behavior. Some think being baptized will help break their habit. That’s seldom the case. Breaking the nicotine habit is admittedly difficult for some, especially when they have suffered other "more serious" addiction. Perhaps the real difficulty is in confronting the fact that this "lesser" addiction is as unacceptable and sinful as the "more serious" addiction is.

D. Oliver
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Seed Sowers Videos

SeedSowers Videos are memory books from the Mexican short missions trips by the Seed Sowers Organization.

There are two locations to find these videos online:

Yahoo videos for SeedSowers 2009 Veracruz and 2010 Obregón
YouTube videos for SeedSowers 2004 Chihuahua, 2005 Hermosillo, 2006 Hermosillo, 2007 Guadalajara .

You can see the detials about upcoming trips at www.seedsowersonline.com

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In Ezekiel 28, is the Garden of Eden the same as the home of Adam and Eve

In Ezekiel 28," TARGET="_blank">Ezekiel 28, is the Garden of Eden the same as the home of Adam and Eve?

This page was adapted from an answer at Truth and Tidings Magazine by David Oliver.

The Garden of Eden in Ezekiel 28" TARGET="_blank">Ezekiel 28 is the same as Genesis 2" TARGET="_blank">Genesis 2 and 3. Like Isaiah 14," TARGET="_blank">Isaiah 14, Ezekiel both compares Satan and the king of Tyre and also exposes "the hand behind the throne," Satan. Perhaps people talked of the perfection, wisdom, and beauty of the king of Tyre (Ezekiel 28:12)," TARGET="_blank">Ezekiel 28:12), but God uses those same words to describe Satan. Figuratively speaking, he was adorned with rich and rare gems in creation (v 13). He had the highest rank in God’s spirit creation, the winged cherub that defended the throne of God and had full access to the immediate presence of God (v 14). Though Satan was perfect, iniquity (due to pride, v 17; see also vv 1-10) "was found" in him (v 15). His abundance caused his problem, because he allowed it to fill him with pride; therefore, he was expelled from God’s presence and cast down to the earth (vv 16, 17). God now speaks to the king, so filled with abundance and likewise so lifted up with pride, yet he would be cast down in shame before other kings (v 17).

However, the statement about Satan’s being in Eden is out of chronological order. Perhaps it precedes the other statements in order to emphasize the greatest affront to God; in Eden Satan acted as a spoiler, attacking what God valued. So, God describes the king of Tyre as a spoiler of what should have been for God (v 18a). This was the immediate reason God razed his kingdom to the astonishment of all (vv 18, 19).

D. Oliver

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Why did God the Father, rather than Jesus, deliver the Book of Revelation to John?

Why was the Revelation given by the Father rather than by Jesus Christ Himself (Revelation 1:1)" TARGET="_blank">Revelation 1:1)?

The Revelation is given by God, Who, of course, we understand in this passage, is the Father.

The defining portrait of the Lord Jesus in the Revelation is "One like unto the Son of Man" (1:13; 14:14). As such, He has authority to execute judgment (Joh 5:27)" TARGET="_blank">Joh 5:27) and to extend God’s rule throughout God’s creation (Heb 2:6-8)." TARGET="_blank">Heb 2:6-8). The Revelation gives us the course of events leading to this fulfillment, when the word comes from the throne, "It is done" (Rev 21:6)." TARGET="_blank">Rev 21:6).

In His role as the Son of God and as the Son of Man, the Lord Jesus always moves in subjection to His Father and in dependence on His God, respectively. Because He is God, the Lord had full knowledge of all these events and He did not lack the ability to communicate them. We cannot but worship when we see Him always acting within the role entrusted to Him.

When it was God’s purpose to strengthen His people and enable them to be true to the soon-coming Sovereign, He committed that communication to Jesus Christ, the ascended Man. His role, as Son of God and Son of Man is to communicate. As His God and Father, God’s role is to determine what, when, and how to communicate.

D. Oliver

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Does each person have a guardian angel?

Be the first to give an answer to this question. Write an answer in the comment section below. Please provide your name and if you have a website or blog, be sure to include the URL in your answer. You may optionally include an email address. Answers will be reviewed.

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Doctrine and Beliefs of Gospel Hall

I am having a little trouble finding you doctrine info on your website. Where can I find the information on what you believe?

Benn

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The page at http://www.gospelhall.org/faqs/faqs/your-first-visit.html would give you some information on the doctrine, style and priorities of assemblies.

We believe the Bible is the inspired, once-for-all revealed word of God. We teach that Salvation from sin is through the death of Christ on the cross. Works of any kind do not save, but provide evidence of the reality of the dwelling of the Spirit of God. We believe that the church is a group of called-out believers who share common doctrine and maintain a good testimony of honesty, good works and respect among neighbors and friends. The pattern of believers found in the Acts and Epistles is our model. There is no creed or organization other than the Bible that we follow. We believe Christ will return at some day, known only to God, to rapture all beleivers.

Shad Sluiter
www.gospelhall.org

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Who were the 12 disciples of Christ?

Be the first to give an answer to this question. Write an answer in the comment section below. Please provide your name and if you have a website or blog, be sure to include the URL in your answer.
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When did Christ become our High Priest?

CHRIST’S PRIESTHOOD
When did the High Priesthood of Christ begin, at the offering of Himself on the cross, or upon His sitting down at God’s right hand?

If I were to ask, at what point in the record given us in the 8th and 9th chapters of Leviticus did the high priesthood of Aaron begin, I should probably receive various replies. Some possibly would tell me that he was high priest from the very beginning of the first day of the eight mentioned in these chapters, when he was put forward, before the congregation (chap. 8. 2-5), as the one God had “called” (Hebrews 5:4)" TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 5:4) for the position. Others might say that his priesthood should be reckoned from after the bathing, and clothing, and anointing, and offering (including that of the ram of consecration) on that first day had been completed. Others still might think that only at the end of the seven “days of consecration” (chap. 8. 3) could he be called high priest; while some perhaps would suggest that his priesthood did not effectively begin until he commenced to act on the people’s behalf during the transactions of the eighth day (chap. 9. 15). If I got these replies, could I say that any of them was entirely wrong? I do not think so.

Let us then see what the Hebrews epistle has to tell us about the beginning of the High Priesthood of Christ. In Hebrews 9:11," TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 9:11, after a description of the ministry of the Old Testament high priests, we read, “But Christ having (R.V.) come a High Priest . . . entered in . . . having obtained eternal redemption.” Here the expression “having come a High Priest” seems to suggest that, right from the commencement of His Activities in connection with obtaining redemption, He was acting in priestly character; and definitely so, before He “entered in.” Then in Hebrews 2:17" TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 2:17 we get, “It behoved Him to be made like unto His brethren, that He might become (see Greek, or Newberry) a. . . High Priest . . . to make propitiation (R.V.) for the sins of the people.” In this passage His becoming High Priest is made consequent on His having been made “like unto His brethren,” and yet it was as High Priest that He made propitiation for sins. Again, in Hebrews 6:20" TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 6:20 (R.V.) we read, “Whither as a forerunner Jesus entered for us, having become a High Priest”; which appears to imply that His “entering” followed immediately upon His becoming Priest. Next, in Hebrews 5:10," TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 5:10, after having “learned obedience by the things which He suffered” (this, in light of Phil 2:8" TARGET="_blank">Phil 2:8 surely including His death), and after having thus been “made perfect”; He is then “named (R.V.) of God a High Priest after the order of Melchizedek,” probably in the sense that there was a proclamation of His Priesthood at His ascension. Lastly, in Hebrews 8:4" TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 8:4 we are told that His Priesthood is not “on earth,” and in Hebrews 7:26" TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 7:26 that it is in a sphere where He is “separated (R.V.) from sinners, and made higher than the heavens.”

In view of all this, would I be safe in setting down as wrong: (1) the person who says that when Christ offered up Himself He was Priest as well as Sacrifice; or (2) the person who tells me that His Priesthood is part of the outcome of His death; or (3) the person who states that for the exercise of His Priesthood, He required to be where He now is, in the heavenly Sanctuary? In each case, I do not think so.

W.R.

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