What guidance does God’s Word give on the role of an elder’s wife?

Although Paul gives qualities requisite in the wives of deacons (1 Timothy 3:11)," TARGET="_blank">1 Timothy 3:11), he does not do the same for overseers’ wives. Some biblical principles do provide guidance for her role, however.

When the Lord entrusted responsibility for subduing and having dominion over the earth, He gave it to them, the male and female (Genesis 1:28)," TARGET="_blank">Genesis 1:28), Adam and Eve. When that work began, Adam received the responsibility for tilling the garden, the commandment about what to eat, and the work of naming the animals (2:15, 16, 19, 20). It was not "good" for Adam to "be alone" in this, so the Lord made Eve (v18). Together, they were responsible for the work, but Adam carried out the work and Eve completed him in doing it.

An overseer’s wife, therefore, is an integral part of a unit that shares in overseeing the believers. Her husband does the work and she completes, supports, and enables him in this responsibility. She may have to help him make time for his work, and that will often mean sacrificing time she would enjoy with him. She will greatly enable him by living the Christian standards of God’s Word and seeking grace from the Lord to exemplify the qualities of a Christian wife. She may also help her husband by accompanying him when he gives spiritual counsel to assembly sisters. The overseers may ask her to assist them by dealing directly with a sister whose problem involves sensitive issues, difficult for men to address. At times, an elder’s wife may be able to provide insights that her husband’s male perspective lacks.

She will, at times, recognize that some matters her husband is handling must remain confidential and he is wise to keep them from her so as not to prejudice or overburden her. In any event, all she knows about her husband’s work is to remain between her and her husband. Information about oversight matters should never come from an overseer’s wife. Communicating such matters is his (or the oversight’s) responsibility, not hers.

D. Oliver
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When an assembly begins, how are its overseers recognized?

When an assembly begins, how are its overseers recognized?

From Titus 1:5," TARGET="_blank">Titus 1:5, we learn that several cities in Crete had assemblies but no recognized overseers. The pattern of the New Testament shows that, where the Lord has "flocks" (Acts 20:28)," TARGET="_blank">Acts 20:28), He also has "under-shepherds" (1 Peter 5:2-4)." TARGET="_blank">1 Peter 5:2-4). The condition of the assemblies in Crete could only be temporary. The Acts 20" TARGET="_blank">Acts 20 passage supports the assumption that the Spirit was raising up shepherds. Paul gave Titus apostolic guidance through the inspired Word (Titus 1:6-9)" TARGET="_blank">Titus 1:6-9) so that Titus applied the Word of God to the circumstances and discerned those whom the Spirit was fitting for that service. Such a subjective choice in such a critical matter requires much spiritual wisdom, but, at the same time, allows for human error.

The proverb, "In the multitude of counselors there is safety" (Proverbs 11:14)," TARGET="_blank">Proverbs 11:14), encourages a man with such a responsibility to seek counsel from others with mature judgment, whether gospel workers or elders. This may not always be possible, but is most desirable.

Lest any assume they can move ahead of the Lord in forming an assembly, the Scriptures give principles to guide us. The Spirit allows for the possibility that a number may be saved in a locality, yet that, in itself, does not produce an assembly. More than "two or three" were saved in Athens during Paul’s visit (Acts 17:34)," TARGET="_blank">Acts 17:34), but we have no Biblical evidence of the formation of an assembly there. If we recognize that the designation, a "church of God" (1Co 1:2)," TARGET="_blank">1Co 1:2), indicates that an assembly is divine in its origin, the God Who moved with deliberate order in His work of creation will undoubtedly do the same in forming an assembly. If the Spirit of God is going to raise up shepherds, He will provide progressive evidence of this as some of the men involved begin to show shepherd character. This, among other things (such as developing gift, stability of character, submission to Biblical order), indicates that the Spirit is at work in forming the spiritual entity ("purchased with His own blood," Acts 20:28)" TARGET="_blank">Acts 20:28) that bears the name "church of God."

David Oliver
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How do we know that we have God

How do we know that we have God’s full revelation to us?

Hebrews 1:1-2" TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 1:1-2 informs us that God’s revelation through various instruments and in varying parts has been fulfilled and finalized in the coming of His Son.

If anything further remains to be written, it must stem from His personal teachings and must have his personal authority. Before going back to heaven, the Lord previews the Spirit-inspired writing of the gospels - and Acts, their sequel (John 14:26)," TARGET="_blank">John 14:26), the epistles which amplify His teachings (16:13a), and the Revelation (16:13b). Significantly, this final book includes a curse on anyone who adds to that book (Rev. 22:18)." TARGET="_blank">Rev. 22:18).

Although not all agree with this interpretation, Paul clearly states that the gifts of knowledge and prophecy will become outdated by the coming of "that which is perfect," or complete (1Co. 13:9, 10)." TARGET="_blank">1Co. 13:9, 10). The gifts of the New Testament apostles and prophets (12:8-10a, including "discerning of spirits" and 28) were initial and were unnecessary when the writing of the Word of God had been completed.

In contrast to the existing 66 books of the Bible, recognized as canonical within the first century of their writing, the apocryphal books affixed to the Old Testament were added by the Council of Trent in 1545. Their addition was part of an attempt to combat the Protestant emphasis on the teaching of God’s Word. Other attempts to add to the Scriptures are equally distinct from the inspired volume.

D. Oliver
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How does a saved person have "the rightousness of God"?

To what does "the righteousness of God" (Romans 3:22)" TARGET="_blank">Romans 3:22) refer?

Gods court and law requires righteousness. Romans 3:10" TARGET="_blank">Romans 3:10 flatly states that the defendant (man) has not satisfied the requirement. Man is guilty. "Through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus," the guilty is pronounced "right with God," justified (verse 24). The "propitiation" (verse 25) has satisfied the requirements of the court and the Judge pronounces that the guilty has a righteous standing. This righteous standing is the "righteousness of God" that the law didnt produce, but was "witnessed by the law and the prophets" (verse 21, see also Romans 4:1-8)." TARGET="_blank">Romans 4:1-8).

This "righteousness of God" is received by faith, apart from merit, solely through the blood of Christ (verse 22, with Romans 5:1; 3:24; 5:9)." TARGET="_blank">Romans 5:1; 3:24; 5:9). It is not an exchanged righteousness - a record of sin removed and a record of righteousness replacing it. It is a righteousness based on Gods requirements being met by the sacrifice. Neither is this an engrafted righteousness, as though we now possess an attribute of God, the righteousness of God. It is a righteous standing, declared and accounted by God and based on the satisfaction God has received from the sacrifice of our Lord Jesus Christ.

D. Oliver
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Is it possible that the Lord

Is it possible that the Lord’s brothers were only half brothers?

The idea that Joseph had sons before he married Mary or that those referred to as His brothers were merely His close relatives does not satisfy all the statements of Scripture. The term "brothers" in the New Testament is clearly used to refer to those with common parentage (Matthew 20:20, 24)," TARGET="_blank">Matthew 20:20, 24), nationality (Acts 22:1)," TARGET="_blank">Acts 22:1), and spiritual life (Romans 1:13)." TARGET="_blank">Romans 1:13). There are no clear cases of its use for close family relationship apart from common parentage.

In addition, the references to the Lord’s sisters (Matthew 13:56;" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 13:56; Mark 6:3)" TARGET="_blank">Mark 6:3) must refer to those who shared a common parentage. In the New Testament, the word "sisters" is only used in that way or for those who are related spiritually - which are not cousins or half brothers..

Most conclusively, Psalm 69" TARGET="_blank">Psalm 69 is messianic (vv. 4, 9, 20, 21); "My mother’s children" (v. 8) reproached Him, "for neither did His brethren believe in Him" (John 7:5)." TARGET="_blank">John 7:5).

James, Joses, Simon, Judas, and His sisters were the children of both Mary and Joseph.

D. Oliver
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What translations of Scripture help in understanding its message?

Do other translations of Scripture help in understanding its message?

Yes, but be careful! You must know what you are reading. Is it a literal translation or a paraphrase? Does it employ "dynamic equivalence?" Were the texts in the original language reliable? God's Word was given by verbal inspiration to men who wrote down the message. Those original writings do not exist, but copies do. Our responsibility is to ensure we are reading the most accurate translation of the most accurate copies.

With God's Word, every word matters; therefore, using a literal translation is imperative (KJV, NKJV, RV, DARBY, SPURRELL, NASB). Sometimes the literal may be hard to understand because of idioms in the original language, so a paraphrase can help. Also, some versions employ a "dynamic equivalence," where the translator uses words that convey to the modem mind what was understood by readers of the original text (NIV). Be aware, however, that a paraphrase or "dynamic equivalence" includes the editing committee's own interpretation. That could introduce a bias which limits or changes what the Spirit intended in the original text.

Stan Wells

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Sentence Scramble Maker

The sentance scramble maker program will take any sentence that you make and turn it into a word scramble program like those you find in the newspaper. The sentence scramble maker is designed to make Bible verses into word scramble puzzles, but you can use any sentance you like and scramble it.

Click here to go to the Sentence Scramble Maker.

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What does "kill the soul" mean in Matthew 10:28?

Is it so that “Immortality in God’s Word has no reference to the soul”? If this be so will you kindly explain Matthew 10:28" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 10:28 “Fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul”

Immortality is immunity from death. Clearly man did not then possess immortality in that sense, when created, for he was warned he would die, if he ate the forbidden fruit. But what is death then? It certainly is not “annihilation” or a cessation of existence, for Adam and Eve Continued to exist after the fall. In fact no external change apparently took place in them. But a marked spiritual change occurred, for “They heard the voice of the Lord God walking in the garden. . . and Adam and his wife hid themselves from the presence of the Lord God” (Genesis 3:8)." TARGET="_blank">Genesis 3:8). Death therefore is not cessation of existence, but separation of existence, that is existence out of harmony with God.

This spiritual death has been the condition of the whole human race ever since. When a man believes the gospel “he passes from death unto life” (John 5:24)." TARGET="_blank">John 5:24). He now possesses eternal life and has the assurance from God that “he will never perish” (John 10:28)." TARGET="_blank">John 10:28). This is immortaiity in the spiritual sense, “Verily, verily I say unto you, If a man keep my saying he shall never see death” (John 8:51)." TARGET="_blank">John 8:51). But the fall did not kill the body. To assure this, man was shut off from the tree of life and flow “it is appointed unto men once to die” (Hebrews 9:27)." TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 9:27). Even the body of the Christian “is dead, because of sin” (Romans 8:10)." TARGET="_blank">Romans 8:10). If he dies, his corruptible body will put OR incorruptibility at the Lord’s return, if he survives till then his mortal body will put on immortality. He has the immortality of the spiritual side of his being already included in the gift of eternal life, for that immortality is not only a bodily attribute is clear from the Words, “God Who only bath immortality” (1 Timothy 6:16)" TARGET="_blank">1 Timothy 6:16) —that is in Flimseff, though, of course, He does communicate it. The special verse referred to, Matthew 10:28," TARGET="_blank">Matthew 10:28, merely states that the soul survives the body. Man may kill the latter, but cannot kill the former. This would be equally true of an Unconverted man, who will never cease to exist away from God, as of a converted man who will never cease to live with God.

W.H.

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Has God lost control of the world to Satan?

GOD’S GOVERNMENT OF THE UNIVERSE

Is it scriptural to teach that God has ceased to hold the reins of government relative to the universe (presently)?

If so, give a little enlightenment on such verses as Jeremiah 27:5-8;" TARGET="_blank">Jeremiah 27:5-8; Daniel 4:25" TARGET="_blank">Daniel 4:25 and 26; Matthew 22:21;" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 22:21; Romans 13:1-7;" TARGET="_blank">Romans 13:1-7; 1 Timothy 2:1-2;" TARGET="_blank">1 Timothy 2:1-2; 1 Peter 2. 17." TARGET="_blank">1 Peter 2. 17.

I should say it is very unscriptural. There is no such thought, that I know of, in the Scriptures. If Satan and man are in rebellion against God and try to usurp His authority, and apparently succeed to a certain extent, it is only by His permission and within strictly prescribed limits. I think Jeremiah 27:5-8;" TARGET="_blank">Jeremiah 27:5-8; Daniel 4:25;" TARGET="_blank">Daniel 4:25; Matthew 22:21;" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 22:21; Romans 13:1-7," TARGET="_blank">Romans 13:1-7, verses quoted by the questioner, are quite sufficient to prove that God has never relinquished the reins of government of the Universe or of this world even. Satan is certainly called the “Prince of this World,” but it was only by God’s permission, Who “makes the wrath of man to praise Him,” and he is never called this since the Cross and resurrection of our Lord. But nowhere is Satan entitled as Prince of the Universe. How could it be said “The Lord reigneth” (Psalm 93," TARGET="_blank">Psalm 93, Psalm 97," TARGET="_blank">Psalm 97, Psalm 99.)," TARGET="_blank">Psalm 99.), had He ceased to hold the reins of government?
W.H.

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Is Jesus the only person in the Godhead?

When Moses in Deutonomy 6:4 says, “Hear, 0 Israel, The LORD our God is one LORD,” are we to understand that therefore Jesus Christ is the only Person in the Godhead?

No, it would be a very serious and fundamental error to do so, upsetting and dislocating the whole revealed truth concerning the Godhead, as it has pleased God to reveal Himself in His Word.

This is the teaching of a certain fearful system of error, which we need not name, but which has, alas, adherents to-day; but I question whether there is one point of God’s revealed truth on which they are sound. It is a false system built on lies.

Moses’ words are perfectly true: “The LORD our God is One LORD,” but in that Unity there are three distinct Divine Persons or Subsistences —Father, Son and Spirit—co-equal, co-eternal, co-substantial (see e.g. Matthew 3:16-17;" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 3:16-17; Matthew 28:19;" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 28:19; 2 Corinthians 13:14;" TARGET="_blank">2 Corinthians 13:14; Revelation 1:4-6," TARGET="_blank">Revelation 1:4-6, etc., etc.). The last expression means that each glorious Person of the Triune God possesses the entire Divine Substance or Essence. God is Spirit and as such is invisible. “No man hath seen God at any time, the only-begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He hath declared Him.” “In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was God.” . . . “and the Word became flesh and dwelt among us and we beheld His glory, the glory of the Only-begotten of the Father full of grace and truth” (John 1:1-14)." TARGET="_blank">John 1:1-14). He was “the express image of God’s Person”; “the image of the Invisible God” (John 10:14, 18;" TARGET="_blank">John 10:14, 18; Hebrews 1: 3;" TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 1: 3; Colossians 1:15)." TARGET="_blank">Colossians 1:15). Only in the Lord Jesus Christ is the Father revealed by the Spirit. Let us not reason about it, but bow and worship. If we do not understand our own tripartite nature, how can we claim to comprehend the Infinite, the “One God in Three Persons”?

W.H.

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