Does God grant the believer the desires of his heart?

Does God grant the believer the desires of his heart?

"Delight thyself also in the Lord; and He shall give thee the desires of thine heart" (Psalm 37:4)" TARGET="_blank">Psalm 37:4) promises this. The promise, though, has a condition, "Delight thyself also in the Lord."

Faith is the result of the work of God in our souls. After all, why is faith being tried (James 1:3)" TARGET="_blank">James 1:3)? God is strengthening our faith. Therefore, when we ask for the desires of our heart, if that request results from what we have learned about God through His Word and through the trials He allows for our learning, He grants it. If our requests come from our own desires for comfort, self-fulfillment, pride, or whatever, they are not of God, not of faith, and not promised an answer.

Sometimes our God waits for us to rearrange our priorities. For example, a man might view marriage as a way to help him avoid inconveniences and overcome weaknesses. Through experience with God, he learns that the eternal value of a wife is to enable him to fulfill God's will, to learn more of God's ways, and to become more like Christ. When that adjustment of priorities takes place, he is actually looking for a different woman than he was at first. Now he is thinking in keeping with God's will. Now the desire of his heart is God's desire.

D. Oliver
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Can telling the truth be wrong if it hurts someone?

How can I protect others when, by telling the truth, I will create problems for them?

Never be a talebearer who betrays a confidence or volunteers to tell what has not been asked: "A talebearer revealeth secrets: but he that is of a faithful spirit concealeth the matter" (Proverbs 11:13)." TARGET="_blank">Proverbs 11:13). More likely, the issue is. "how may I avoid speaking truth when it will be unkind to another?" Lying or denying truth are clearly not options. Even selectively telling part of the truth is dishonest if it leaves a different impression upon the one who asked. You may suggest the questioner speak directly with the individual involved if he must know about the matter. You may also suggest that he consider the matter from that person's perspective. In that light, the truth may not be as detrimental to the other person. "Men do not despise a thief, if he steal to satisfy his soul when he is hungry" (Proverbs 6:30)." TARGET="_blank">Proverbs 6:30). They do not excuse theft but they understand the thief!

J. Slabaugh

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Help me understand who the "holy brethren" are in Hebrews 3

Does "holy brethren, partakers of the heavenly calling" and "whose house are we" (Hebrews 3:1, 6)" TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 3:1, 6) refer to believers or unbelievers?

We cannot accept that these words are addressed to unbelievers for two very obvious reasons.

The nation of Israel never had a heavenly calling. The covenant with Abraham involved blessing for a heavenly and an earthly seed (Genesis 22:17;" TARGET="_blank">Genesis 22:17; Galatians 3:29)," TARGET="_blank">Galatians 3:29), but the promise through Jacob to Israel was for an earthly seed (Genesis 32:12)." TARGET="_blank">Genesis 32:12). Abraham had heavenly hopes (Hebrews 11:10)," TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 11:10), but his natural seed had earthly hopes.

Israel is never called "the house of God." His (God's) house in Hebrews 3:2" TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 3:2 refers to the tabernacle in which Moses was faithful. To make unbelievers a part of "His (Christ's) own house" is not possible. Therefore the two expressions in the question cannot refer to unbelievers. We believe they were believers saved out of Judaism.

We know the name of this epistle is not divinely inspired, but internal evidence is most convincing that it was written to a people who were very familiar with the law and the Levitical system. The majority of them were true to Christ; some were not and turned back. In 1 Corinthians 10:22," TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 10:22, going back to either the idol's temple or the Jewish altar was to provoke the Lord to jealousy. Distinction between the genuine and the false is clear in chapters 3, 6, 10 and 12. The most difficult passage, 5:11 to 6:10, becomes much easier to understand if we see the contrast between "they - them" referring to apostates, and .us - you", referring to genuine believers. "Beloved, we are persuaded better things of you, and things that accompany salvation." (6:9).

N. Crawford

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Is there such a person as an ex-Christian?

Be the first to give an answer to this question. Write an answer in the comment section below. Please provide your name and if you have a website or blog, be sure to include the URL and email address in your answer.

Answers will be reviewed.

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How long was John the Baptist

How long was John the Baptist’s ministry?

The divine historian tells us John’s ministry began "in the fifteenth year of the reign of Tiberius Caesar" (Luke 3:1)." TARGET="_blank">Luke 3:1). Secular historians date that around 29 A.D. John mentions four Passover feasts (John 2:23;" TARGET="_blank">John 2:23; John 5:1;" TARGET="_blank">John 5:1; John 6:4;" TARGET="_blank">John 6:4; John 13:1)." TARGET="_blank">John 13:1). The Lord’s ministry began before the first and He was crucified on the fourth Passover. That suggests His public ministry was slightly more than three years. If we accept that the Lord’s crucifixion was in 33 A.D., His public ministry began in the latter part of 29 A.D. when He "began to be about thirty years of age" (Luke 3:23)," TARGET="_blank">Luke 3:23), perhaps as much as 6 months after John began to preach. Matthew places the death of John the Baptist before the feeding of the 5000 (Matthew 14:1-13, 21)." TARGET="_blank">Matthew 14:1-13, 21). John tells us the feeding of the 5000 took place shortly before the third Passover(John 6:4-13)," TARGET="_blank">John 6:4-13), about two and a half years into the Lord’s ministry. John had been in prison for a time before that, so his ministry - before imprisonment - may have been as short as two and a half years. Such a valuable man! Yet he fulfilled his course (Acts 13:25)" TARGET="_blank">Acts 13:25) within three years. Apparently, the Lord gave neither John nor his disciples an explanation of the divine plan, for "His ways are past finding out" (Romans 11:33)." TARGET="_blank">Romans 11:33).

D. Oliver
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Can we approach the Lord Jesus to worship Him apart from the Father?

We are on holy ground when considering any aspect of divine truth, but especially do we need to approach “with unshod feet,” when it is a question of the Being of God! We can only know what He is pleased to reveal, and even then it is “as in a glass darkly,” and “in part.” There is one God—that is, one Divine Essence; but in that unity there are three Divine Persons or Subsistencies, the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost; co-equal, co-eternal, and co-substantial: that is, each of the three possesses the whole Divine substance. We must neither divide the substance, nor confound the persons.

These three Persons are in necessary relations to one another, and it is important not to confound these relations. Each possesses the Personal properties essential to Himself, and which cannot be predicated of or communicated to the others. Thus it belongs to the Father to “beget:” His are the eternal counsels; the Son is the Only-begotten, the Incarnate One; He alone suffered for sin. The Spirit proceedeth from the Father and the Son. The Spirit reveals the Son, by whom the Father is declared or interpreted. Now, it is not derogating from one Divine Person to refrain from attributing to Him what the Holy Scriptures assign to Another.

Thus we never read of worship being offered to the Holy Spirit, though He is omnipotent, omnipresent, omniscient, eternal, divine as the Father and the Son. But we do read, even in the days of His humiliation, of worship being rendered to the Lord Jesus, and He accepted it. And in Revelation 5:8-13" TARGET="_blank">Revelation 5:8-13 Divine worship is paid to the Lamb in heaven. Nevertheless, the Lord proclaims in John 4:23, 24," TARGET="_blank">John 4:23, 24, that the true Worshippers will worship the Father, and that it is the “Father who is seeking worshippers”—”God is Spirit, and they that worship Him must worship Him in spirit and in truth.” The apostle Paul indicates, too, in that pregnant verse (Eph. ii. 18), the true Divine order. “Through Him (Christ Jesus) we both (believers from Jew and Gentile) have access by the Spirit unto the Father.” The Lord is the way to the Father and the substance of worship; the Spirit the power; the Father the recipient of the worship of the people.”

W.H.

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What is "very God of very God"?

Is there anything wrong, when seeking to defend the real Deity and true humanity of our Lord, in making use of the statement, “He is very God of very God, and very Man of very man?”

The words, “very God of very God” were inserted in the creed of the Nican elders and teachers at the council of Nica in A.D. 325," TARGET="_blank">D. 325, for whose faithful contending for the faith we may well thank God. They were intended to safeguard the true Deity of Christ, in opposition to the soul-destroying heresies of Anus, which denied it. They affirmed that the Son, though truly said to be the only begotten of the Father, is no less truly God—co-equal, co-substantial, and co-eternal with the Father and the Spirit. The creed, like every human writing must be tested by the Word of God. In this case, I judge, the expression in question to be quite legitimate and laudable. But the expression, “very Man of very man,” stands on other footing. It does not, for one thing, occur in the Nicene creed, nor, as far as I know, in any other, and in my judgment ought to be avoided. It is an attempt to express “the secret things” of the Incarnation, but seems to ignore the part the Holy Spirit had in the conception—”That which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.” We must and do insist on the true humanity of our Lord, but without attempting to define how it was produced.

W.H.

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Does God need to be reconciled or only man?

It has often been stated, and generally accepted, “That God did not need to be reconciled.”

Now Trench, in his “Synonyms,” points out that katallage has two sides :—(ist) God laying aside His holy anger against our sins and receiving us with His favour; (2nd) The daily depositions under the Holy Spirit of the enmity of the old man toward God. Did God need to be reconciled?

No question is raised as to God’s love to sinners, nor as to His willingness that all should be saved (the death of Christ does not make God love sinners. He “so loved that He gave”). But whether EFFECTIVE “reconciliation” is made in Scripture simply to depend on the sinner’s willingness to “make it up” with God, it is certain that our Lord by His atoning death has fully met POTENTIALLY all the claims of God on account of sin. This, however, only becomes ACTUALLY true for those sinners who individually acknowledge their guilt, and believe in the Lord Jesus Christ, and until they do, God’s attitude toward them is not one of complacency, but of righteous displeasure. As the late Dr. Moule puts it—”Reconciliation (katallage) habitually points to the winning rather the pardon of an offended king, than the CONSENT of the rebel to yield to his kindness.” “Be ye reconciled to God,” would then mean, “As the offending party, secure while you can His acceptance through the atoning work of Christ.” This is borne out by Matthew 5:23-24," TARGET="_blank">Matthew 5:23-24, where it is the offender who is told to go and be reconciled to his brother, ostensibly by confession and amends. We, too, are the offenders: in order to be reconciled we must come to God, confess our sinfulness, and believe the Gospel, and then we have peace with God. As Trench (Syn. p. 292) writes of reconciliation: “To make the secondary meaning (that is the breaking down of the enmity of the carnal mind to God), the primary, is based . . . on a foregone determination to get rid of the reality of God’s anger against the sinner” (i.e., Psalm 7:11," TARGET="_blank">Psalm 7:11, “God is angry with the wicked every day”).

W.H.

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Do we pray to the Holy Spirit or only to God the Father?

Do we pray to the Spirit or ask for the Spirit of God?

The Lord Jesus taught the disciples to pray to the Father in the name of the Lord Jesus (John 16:23)." TARGET="_blank">John 16:23). In the epistles we learn that we should pray in the Spirit (Ephesians 6:18)," TARGET="_blank">Ephesians 6:18), who helps us to pray intelligently and makes intercession for us (Romans 8:26, 27)." TARGET="_blank">Romans 8:26, 27). Before Pentecost, the Spirit came upon people temporarily to empower them for some special service. From the day of Pentecost onward, the Spirit came to indwell and seal each believer at the moment of conversion (Ephesians 1:13," TARGET="_blank">Ephesians 1:13, "upon believing"). We are never told in the epistles to pray for the Spirit, be cause He already indwells, us. We are told to be filled with the Spirit in order to serve God, and to walk in the Spirit in order to please God and not fulfill the lust of the flesh (Galatians 5:16)." TARGET="_blank">Galatians 5:16).

A. Joyce

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Will christians judge angels?

In 1 Corinthians 6:3," TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 6:3, we read the following:

1 Corinthians 6:1-6" TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 6:1-6 When one of you has a grievance against another, does he dare go to law before the unrighteous instead of the saints? (2) Or do you not know that the saints will judge the world? And if the world is to be judged by you, are you incompetent to try trivial cases? (3) Do you not know that we are to judge angels? How much more, then, matters pertaining to this life! (4) So if you have such cases, why do you lay them before those who have no standing in the church? (5) I say this to your shame. Can it be that there is no one among you wise enough to settle a dispute between the brothers, (6) but brother goes to law against brother, and that before unbelievers?

There were problems in the church at Corinth with conflicts between brothers. Christians should be above such petty behavior. And then Paul suddenly writes the surprising statement that Christians will judge angels. He adds no explanation in the immediate context to help us understand where, when or how this will happen.

It is known from from Jude 1:6" TARGET="_blank">Jude 1:6 and 2 Peter 2:4," TARGET="_blank">2 Peter 2:4, 2 Peter 2:9" TARGET="_blank">2 Peter 2:9 that angels will be judged. It is also clear from scripture that Christ will be the Judge (John 5:22)." TARGET="_blank">John 5:22). It must be that we are united to Christ that gives us this right to be involved with the judgment upon angels. Since Christ will include us in this task in the future, shouldn’t we be able to handle matters of judgment in this life?

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