What is an evangelist? What does an evangelist do?

An evangelist is a person who is dedicated to the work of teaching and preaching the gospel message. That is, he is teaching how that Jesus' death and resurrection is God's answer for your sins.

The word "evangelist" comes from the greek word for "gospel" or "good news". An evangelist is the messanger of good news.

The word is mentioned two placed in the New Testament.

Acts 21:8" TARGET="_blank">Acts 21:8 And the next day we that were of Paul's company departed, and came unto Caesarea: and we entered into the house of Philip the evangelist, which was one of the seven; and abode with him.

2 Timothy 4:5" TARGET="_blank">2 Timothy 4:5 But watch thou in all things, endure afflictions, do the work of an evangelist, make full proof of thy ministry.

Unlike other works mentioned in the church, such as overseer or deacon, there are no qualifications listed for someone to be an evangelist. Everyone who is a believer of Christ is an evangelist in the sense that he/she should be able to tell others about Christ and his salvation.

1 Peter 3:15" TARGET="_blank">1 Peter 3:15 but in your hearts honor Christ the Lord as holy, always being prepared to make a defense to anyone who asks you for a reason for the hope that is in you; yet do it with gentleness and respect.

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How many years were the children of Israel in slavery in Egypt?

How many years were the children of Israel in bondage in Egypt?

Genesis 15:13" TARGET="_blank">Genesis 15:13 and Acts 7:6" TARGET="_blank">Acts 7:6 indicate that the Israelites would be afflicted 400 years. Exodus 12:40 states the sojourning of the children of Israel in Egypt was 430 years; Galatians 3:17" TARGET="_blank">Galatians 3:17 states that from the giving of the promise to Abraham to the giving of the law by Moses was 430 years. How can the above Scriptures be reconciled to one another? What does Genesis 15:16" TARGET="_blank">Genesis 15:16 mean?

There is no real discrepancy, but we must note what is said in each case, and take into consideration the universal permission of an occasional use of round numbers. The difficulty of Genesis 15:13 arises from limiting the “four hundred years” to the AFFLICTIONS in Egypt, whereas the expression governs the whole verse, and I feel sure that the earlier expression, “thy seed shall be a stranger in a land that is not theirs,” would go further back even than Egypt, to what characterised the lives of Isaac and Jacob and his sons, even before they went down there. That this number—400 years—then is to be taken in this general and round number way, seems clear from Galatians 3:17," TARGET="_blank">Galatians 3:17, which dates the 430 years exactly from the promise to Abraham (Gen. xv.) to the giving of the law in the third month of the Exodus (see Exodus 19:1)." TARGET="_blank">Exodus 19:1). This tallies with the 430 years of Exodus 12:41," TARGET="_blank">Exodus 12:41, a verse generally read as though it affirmed that the children of Israel sojourned that period in Egypt, whereas it says that the sojourning (i.e., I take it as including the whole period of their sojournings either in Canaan or Egypt) of the children of Israel (who dwelt in Egypt) was 430 years. That is, they were always characteristically “sojourners.” This is shown, I believe, to be the case in Genesis 15:16," TARGET="_blank">Genesis 15:16, where the Exodus is specified as to occur not 400 years after their arrival, but “IN THE FOURTH GENERATION.” This harmonises with the genealogies of Exodus 6" TARGET="_blank">Exodus 6: , where we learn that Kohath was a son of Levi, and that Amram, the father of Moses and Aaron, was the son of Kohath, i.e., four generations. Notice the ages of Levi (v. 16), of Kohath (v. 18), of Amram (v. 20), which specify this.

W.H.

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What does the Bible say about celebrating Christmas?

Be the first to give an answer to this question. Write an answer in the comment section below. Please provide your name and if you have a website or blog, be sure to include the URL and email address in your answer.

Answers will be reviewed.

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Help me understand who the "holy brethren" are in Hebrews 3

Does "holy brethren, partakers of the heavenly calling" and "whose house are we" (Hebrews 3:1, 6)" TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 3:1, 6) refer to believers or unbelievers?

We cannot accept that these words are addressed to unbelievers for two very obvious reasons.

The nation of Israel never had a heavenly calling. The covenant with Abraham involved blessing for a heavenly and an earthly seed (Genesis 22:17;" TARGET="_blank">Genesis 22:17; Galatians 3:29)," TARGET="_blank">Galatians 3:29), but the promise through Jacob to Israel was for an earthly seed (Genesis 32:12)." TARGET="_blank">Genesis 32:12). Abraham had heavenly hopes (Hebrews 11:10)," TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 11:10), but his natural seed had earthly hopes.

Israel is never called "the house of God." His (God's) house in Hebrews 3:2" TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 3:2 refers to the tabernacle in which Moses was faithful. To make unbelievers a part of "His (Christ's) own house" is not possible. Therefore the two expressions in the question cannot refer to unbelievers. We believe they were believers saved out of Judaism.

We know the name of this epistle is not divinely inspired, but internal evidence is most convincing that it was written to a people who were very familiar with the law and the Levitical system. The majority of them were true to Christ; some were not and turned back. In 1 Corinthians 10:22," TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 10:22, going back to either the idol's temple or the Jewish altar was to provoke the Lord to jealousy. Distinction between the genuine and the false is clear in chapters 3, 6, 10 and 12. The most difficult passage, 5:11 to 6:10, becomes much easier to understand if we see the contrast between "they - them" referring to apostates, and .us - you", referring to genuine believers. "Beloved, we are persuaded better things of you, and things that accompany salvation." (6:9).

N. Crawford

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What can believers do for a believer who is the subject of damaging rumors?

What can believers do for a believer who is the subject of damaging rumors?

If the rumors are just passing stories that no one would take seriously, let them drift into nothingness. More harm than good might come from telling the person what others said. For example, if the person insisted on knowing who repeated the rumor, he would either be upset with you if you refused to tell him or upset with the person who told the rumor. You have become a talebearer who stirs up strife (Proverbs 26:20)." TARGET="_blank">Proverbs 26:20).

We should always ask for evidence to substantiate rumors about others, especially for persistent, harmful rumors. If supporting evidence is not available, make your disapproval clear. And never repeat damaging rumors (Titus 3:2;" TARGET="_blank">Titus 3:2; James 4:11)." TARGET="_blank">James 4:11). Wrongly damaging the reputation of others is serious (Proverbs 6:16-19)." TARGET="_blank">Proverbs 6:16-19).

Discussing the rumors in a friendly manner with the accused, without assuming the truthfulness of the rumors, would be a kindness, especially when accompanied by a sincere expression of concern that anyone would say such a thing. That would make it easier for the individual to admit that the rumor is true or partly true or else to affirm that it is totally false. Depending on its seriousness, you could even mention the supporting evidence you had been given. Every attempt should be made to contain the problem (Matthew 18:15)." TARGET="_blank">Matthew 18:15). If the rumor arose from a clear case of misunderstanding, don't give the wronged person a case against the source of the rumor, but volunteer to try to correct the misunderstanding yourself.

If the rumor appears likely to be true and involves issues of concern to the assembly, a believer is responsible to go to an overseer and kindly, humbly, confidentially, carefully inform him. If the believer did not inform the assembly's leadership, he would be responsible for wrongfully covering the sin (Acts 5:2, 8-10)." TARGET="_blank">Acts 5:2, 8-10). It is a mistaken kindness to support a believer in sinning against God.

When the overseers become aware of a possible problem, they are responsible to thoroughly investigate (Proverbs 25:2)," TARGET="_blank">Proverbs 25:2), visit the individual, and guide the assembly to act in keeping with the facts. The believer who passed on the information to the overseers has no further responsibility and must submit to their judgment (Hebrews 13:17)." TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 13:17).

D. Oliver
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In what sense have we "crucified the flesh"?

In what sense have we "crucified the flesh" (Galatians 5:24)" TARGET="_blank">Galatians 5:24)?

This involves an individual change of viewpoint that began when we discovered we were without strength before God. It is not what God did at the cross nor could we have done it. They that are Christ’s began at the cross (Galatians 3:1)." TARGET="_blank">Galatians 3:1). As a Jew, Paul recognizes he became dead to the Law when the Law’s penalty was carried out at the cross (2:19). Having been crucified with Christ, the believer lives, not by the Law, but by the faith of the Son of God (2:20). The law demanded that the flesh be obedient. After reviewing all that the flesh can produce (5:19-21), Paul insists that it cannot be obedient; therefore, Law-keeping is not Christian living. The believer’s crucifixion with Christ (2:20) declares that God is finished with the flesh. In the crucifixion of Christ, the believer sees the irrelevance of the flesh in righteous living. That is the viewpoint God intends all believers to maintain. The cross negates every suggestion that any contribution from us, that is, from our flesh, can please God. Since we began in the Spirit (3:3), He must govern our manner of life (5:25). We can become like Christ only under the control of the Spirit.

D. Oliver
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What is the meaning of "He that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin" (1 Peter 4:1)?

What is the meaning of "He that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin" (1 Peter 4:1)" TARGET="_blank">1 Peter 4:1)?

The first word of the verse, "forasmuch," connects the first 6 verses of chapter 4 with the end of chapter 3. The context in chapter 3 deals with suffering for righteousness’ sake and for well doing (vv. 14, 17). "Forasmuch then as Christ hath suffered for us in the flesh" revisits 3:18. Within that context, Peter has just spoken of baptism (v. 21), "which doth also now save us . . . by the resurrection of Jesus Christ" (v. 21). In the opening verses of chapter 4, Peter amplifies this statement.

The salvation to which he refers is not from the penalty of sin but from a life of sin (see 4:3, 4). For righteousness’ sake (v. 14), Christ suffered for us. The believers to whom Peter writes were baptized and consequently suffered for righteousness’ sake. Being identified with us, Christ suffered for our sake; being identified with Him in baptism, believers suffered for His sake. It is fitting that these persecuted believers should be like-minded with Christ, submitting to God’s will (3:17).These believers were being restrained from their former sins ("ceased from sin"). They were saved from their former life, a life of sin, by 2 factors. First, by being baptized, they put a barrier between themselves and the "disobedient," their persecutors. Second, baptism expresses what took place at salvation’s moment. United with Christ and His death, believers are dead to sin (Romans 6:2)." TARGET="_blank">Romans 6:2).

But Peter has said that this salvation is by the resurrection of Christ, not by His death. Being restrained from sin is not an end in itself, but a means to God’s purpose that believers should now live "to the will of God" (v. 2).

A free paraphrase of these verses could be, "Therefore since Christ suffered for us in His body of flesh, believers should likewise submit to God’s will when they suffer reproach for Him because they have been baptized. Those who have thus suffered have been restrained from (‘ceased from’) their former life of sin in order that they should not live to fulfill the usual lusts of humanity; they should live the rest of their time to the will of God."

D. Oliver

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Does the bread and the cup of the Lord

Does the bread and the cup of the Lord’s Supper have spiritual value?

The hymn expresses it well: "Only bread and only wine, yet to faith the solemn sign . . ." They are not the body and blood of the Lord, but are emblems or reminders of them. These emblems are not types; neither the shape (round, rectangular), substance (flour or yeast), preparation (from a seed, harvested and ground wheat, baked in an oven), nor disposal (whatever happens to them after they are used) has any significance. Partaking of these emblems does not impart divine life or any inherent spiritual benefit more than any other act of obedience to God’s Word.

Remembering the Lord is a sacred privilege, so there is an elevated responsibility in handling these emblems. Separate emblems of the body and blood of the Lord (1 Corinthians 11:24, 25)" TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 11:24, 25) remind us of His death. Behavior inconsistent with this sacred privilege causes particular condemnation (verses 27-30).

The bread and cup involve a dual symbolism relating to commemoration and communion. In themselves, they remind us of the death of our Lord, commemorated when we remember Him. When we partake of them, we express fellowship. "The communion of the blood of Christ" (1 Corinthians 10:16)" TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 10:16) expresses our fellowship with God, His claims having been satisfied (Leviticus 17:11, 1 4;3: 17)." TARGET="_blank">Leviticus 17:11, 1 4;3: 17). "The communion of the body of Christ" expresses our fellowship with one another in the assembly (1 Corinthians 10:16,17)." TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 10:16,17). Paul shows that such expressions of fellowship make it morally impossible to participate in any other fellowship inconsistent with His lordship.

Religion has ascribed to the emblems sacramental value such as the power to take away sins. The emblems do not have spiritual value but they do express spiritual truths.

D. Oliver
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What is the difference between the rapture and the coming of the Lord?

RESURRECTION AND RAPTURE
THE “AT ANY MOMENT” VIEW

Will Christ come secretly (as a surprise) for his church or will he come in shining glory and "every eye shall see Him"?

What about verses that indicate that he will come FOR His saints “immediately after the tribulation of those days”? Matthew 24;" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 24; Mark 13" TARGET="_blank">Mark 13:, or Luke 21" TARGET="_blank">Luke 21: don't appear to have any verse where Christ said He would come SECRETLY or “at any moment.” Please throw light upon this subject.

The Lord's coming in glory is quite distinct from the descent of the Lord from heaven to take away His sleeping and living saints from the earth, to be for ever with the Lord, as is revealed in 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18." TARGET="_blank">1 Thessalonians 4:13-18.

Many verses take into account the differences between these two comings (e.g., John 14:1-6;" TARGET="_blank">John 14:1-6; Philippians 3:20-21;" TARGET="_blank">Philippians 3:20-21; 1 Thessalonians 1:10)." TARGET="_blank">1 Thessalonians 1:10). 1 Corinthians 15: 51-54," TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 15: 51-54, where the “mystery” of this first stage of the Lord’s return is revealed: “Behold, I shew you a mystery, we shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed, in a moment, in the twinkling of an eye.” This is not referred to in Matthew 24," TARGET="_blank">Matthew 24, etc., for the good reason, that the time had not come to reveal it.

The coming there described is that of the “Son of Man” to the earth, to deliver Israel, which was not a mystery at all, but had been plainly revealed in the Old Testament, e.g., Zechariah 14:4-5." TARGET="_blank">Zechariah 14:4-5. where we read that “His feet shall stand upon the Mount of Olives, and that “all His saints will be with Him,” that is clearly all the saints already caught up to be with Him.

It is true that the words “secret rapture” do not occur in scripture, but if, as is stated, the whole event will be over in “the twinkling of an eye,” clearly only those taken away will know of it at the time, though their absence will doubtless be noticed later. They will be delivered thus from the Great Tribulation.

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Did Achan's stolen objects have spiritual symbolism?

Joshua 7:21." TARGET="_blank">Joshua 7:21. What would the “Babylonish garment and two hundred shekels of silver and the wedge of gold of fifty shekels weight” represent? What is the teaching in this verse?

I think they would stand for what most attracts the eye and fills the heart of the natural man; for what is more desirable to the flesh than fine clothes to deck oneself withal, and gold and silver, which will purchase “everything except peace of mind, and entrance anywhere except to heaven”! “Babylonish garment” is literally “a garment of Shinar,” the locality where Babylon was built, renowned, it is said, for its beautiful robes. The word for “garment,” is from a root meaning, “wide,” hence an ample covering, a cloak. It is used of Elijah’s mantle and also of the royal robe the King of Nineveh doffed in sign of repentance (Jonah 3: 6)." TARGET="_blank">Jonah 3: 6). Gesenius says these “cloaks of Shinar” were “variegated with figures, or interwoven with various colours, having the figures of men and beasts,” reminding one of the great copes worn by ecclesiastics to-day at their religious ceremonials—true “cloaks of Shinar” those! Let all see to it, lest fine clothes, ministering to the pride of life, or silver and gold, ministering to its “many foolish and hurtful lusts,” occupy our hearts! “But thou, 0 man of God, flee these things, and follow after righteousness, godliness, faith, love, patience, meekness.”

W.H.

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