What does "kill the soul" mean in Matthew 10:28?

Is it so that “Immortality in God’s Word has no reference to the soul”? If this be so will you kindly explain Matthew 10:28" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 10:28 “Fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul”

Immortality is immunity from death. Clearly man did not then possess immortality in that sense, when created, for he was warned he would die, if he ate the forbidden fruit. But what is death then? It certainly is not “annihilation” or a cessation of existence, for Adam and Eve Continued to exist after the fall. In fact no external change apparently took place in them. But a marked spiritual change occurred, for “They heard the voice of the Lord God walking in the garden. . . and Adam and his wife hid themselves from the presence of the Lord God” (Genesis 3:8)." TARGET="_blank">Genesis 3:8). Death therefore is not cessation of existence, but separation of existence, that is existence out of harmony with God.

This spiritual death has been the condition of the whole human race ever since. When a man believes the gospel “he passes from death unto life” (John 5:24)." TARGET="_blank">John 5:24). He now possesses eternal life and has the assurance from God that “he will never perish” (John 10:28)." TARGET="_blank">John 10:28). This is immortaiity in the spiritual sense, “Verily, verily I say unto you, If a man keep my saying he shall never see death” (John 8:51)." TARGET="_blank">John 8:51). But the fall did not kill the body. To assure this, man was shut off from the tree of life and flow “it is appointed unto men once to die” (Hebrews 9:27)." TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 9:27). Even the body of the Christian “is dead, because of sin” (Romans 8:10)." TARGET="_blank">Romans 8:10). If he dies, his corruptible body will put OR incorruptibility at the Lord’s return, if he survives till then his mortal body will put on immortality. He has the immortality of the spiritual side of his being already included in the gift of eternal life, for that immortality is not only a bodily attribute is clear from the Words, “God Who only bath immortality” (1 Timothy 6:16)" TARGET="_blank">1 Timothy 6:16) —that is in Flimseff, though, of course, He does communicate it. The special verse referred to, Matthew 10:28," TARGET="_blank">Matthew 10:28, merely states that the soul survives the body. Man may kill the latter, but cannot kill the former. This would be equally true of an Unconverted man, who will never cease to exist away from God, as of a converted man who will never cease to live with God.

W.H.

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Do people become angels after death? Do children become angels?

No. Angels are spirit beings, while humans are composed of a body and spiritual part consisting of soul and spirit.

Christ taught in Matthew 22:30" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 22:30 that angels do not get married nor have children.

In heaven, there are two distinct groups who live there. Hebrews 12:22-23" TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 12:22-23 mentions a “myriads of angels” and “the spirits of righteous men made perfect”.

The story of the Rich Man and Lazarus in Luke 16:19-31" TARGET="_blank">Luke 16:19-31 tells us that at death a person either goes to the agonies of Hades or to the bliss of God's presence. The Rich Man even asked Abraham to send Lazarus to his father's house, but believers who have died do not return to earth to communicate with anyone. In contrast, God sends his angels to protect and communicate with believers who are still alive (Hebrews 1:13-14;" TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 1:13-14; Psalm 91:11-13;" TARGET="_blank">Psalm 91:11-13; Acts 27:23-24;" TARGET="_blank">Acts 27:23-24; Matthew 2:13;" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 2:13; Acts 5:19)." TARGET="_blank">Acts 5:19).

Children who die do not become angels. They die like adults who are saved. They are covered by Christ's work at the cross. A related question to this is "Are children saved who die young?"

Shad David Sluiter

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How do we unify the Church?

Are we responsible to unify the Body of Christ?

No. The Body has an indissoluble unity. The New Testament deals with unity in only two ways: the unity of the Body, which is positional and perfect; the unity of believers seen in the assembly, which is practical and imperfect. The ecumenical movement pleads for a "unity" that ignores truth. Taking John 17:21" TARGET="_blank">John 17:21 as Christs present desire that His own should be one (John 17:21)," TARGET="_blank">John 17:21), the ecumenical voices call for all "Christians" to come together. In this way, we are to ignore error, accept the legitimacy and existence of the names that divide "Christians," and validate that being a "Christian" in name is the same as being born again. For evangelicals to call for the same result, based on the same scripture, is equally unsound, although they recognize the need for being born again. Obedience to Christ unites believers scripturally. Interdenominationalism may seem broad-minded, but it is actually self-defeating by giving legitimacy to (and thus perpetuating) denominational names that publicly divide Christians.

D. Oliver

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Are there musical instruments in heaven and why will they be used during the Millennium?

Are there musical instruments in heaven and why will they be used during the Millennium?

If God has always had a "dwelling place," then heaven is eternal and uncreated. Nothing that was created, apart from spirit beings, and certainly nothing tangible were in heaven until the ascension of our Lord Jesus in a physical body. The three references to harps in heaven in Revelation (Revelation 5:8;" TARGET="_blank">Revelation 5:8; Revelation 14:2;" TARGET="_blank">Revelation 14:2; Revelation 15:2)" TARGET="_blank">Revelation 15:2) all appear to be couched in figurative terms where prayers are "odors," voices sound like harp-singers with harps (JND), and the singers surround "as it were a sea of glass."

The present age, with its spiritual character and it’s heavenly sanctuary, will have passed during the Millennium. God will have completed one means of dealing with man on earth and will return to complete His promises from a former age. A literal temple on earth will have its sanctuary, its sacrifices, and its priesthood (Ezekiel 40" TARGET="_blank">Ezekiel 40: to Ezekiel 48" TARGET="_blank">Ezekiel 48:). As instruments had a part in Old Testament worship with its sanctuary and sacrifices, they will be appropriate for worship in that coming kingdom. Instruments are not, in themselves, wrong in worship. Their absence in public testimony today indicates the spiritual character of worship as "spiritual sacrifices" (1 Peter 2:5)." TARGET="_blank">1 Peter 2:5). Instruments will be a delightful accompaniment to the worship of God’s people then, as they are today, apart from assembly gatherings.

D. Oliver
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Is it possible that the Lord

Is it possible that the Lord’s brothers were only half brothers?

The idea that Joseph had sons before he married Mary or that those referred to as His brothers were merely His close relatives does not satisfy all the statements of Scripture. The term "brothers" in the New Testament is clearly used to refer to those with common parentage (Matthew 20:20, 24)," TARGET="_blank">Matthew 20:20, 24), nationality (Acts 22:1)," TARGET="_blank">Acts 22:1), and spiritual life (Romans 1:13)." TARGET="_blank">Romans 1:13). There are no clear cases of its use for close family relationship apart from common parentage.

In addition, the references to the Lord’s sisters (Matthew 13:56;" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 13:56; Mark 6:3)" TARGET="_blank">Mark 6:3) must refer to those who shared a common parentage. In the New Testament, the word "sisters" is only used in that way or for those who are related spiritually - which are not cousins or half brothers..

Most conclusively, Psalm 69" TARGET="_blank">Psalm 69 is messianic (vv. 4, 9, 20, 21); "My mother’s children" (v. 8) reproached Him, "for neither did His brethren believe in Him" (John 7:5)." TARGET="_blank">John 7:5).

James, Joses, Simon, Judas, and His sisters were the children of both Mary and Joseph.

D. Oliver
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Can Satan read the minds of people?

Be the first to give an answer to this question. Write an answer in the comment section below. Please provide your name and if you have a website or blog, be sure to include the URL in your answer. You may optionally include an email address. Answers will be reviewed.
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What is the meaning of Hebrews 2:3?

What is the meaning of Hebrews 2:3" TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 2:3?

During the life of the Lord Jesus on earth, many who followed him and claimed to be disciples proved to be false (John 6:60-66; 8:31-37)." TARGET="_blank">John 6:60-66; 8:31-37). They missed the significance of the miracles, but enjoyed the food (John 6:26)." TARGET="_blank">John 6:26). During the apostolic days, the same was true. They "tasted... the powers of the world to come" (the age to come, JND) (Hebrews 6:5)," TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 6:5), enjoying the apostolic signs that confirmed the Messiahship of the Lord Jesus. The prophesied powers of the coming kingdom (Isaiah 35:4-6)" TARGET="_blank">Isaiah 35:4-6) were present in the service of Christ and His disciples. These signs confirmed that Jesus was the Christ (Hebrews 2:3,4)" TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 2:3,4) who would fulfill the prophets words, "Behold, you God will come with vengeance, even God with recompense; He will come and save you" (verse 4). Those who didnt continue in the Lords words (John 8:31)" TARGET="_blank">John 8:31) were not genuine disciples. Those who let the word slip (or who slipped away from the word, JND) (Hebrews 2:1)" TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 2:1) during the apostolic times were not genuine. In drifting away from the truth about the Son of God, they would not escape Gods judgment (verse 2). This epistle, written before the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D., is heavy with the foreboding clouds of Gods wrath soon to burst on the nation. This is likely in view here and in verses 25-31 of chapter 10.

D. Oliver
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Where did the "Gap Theory" come from?

Where did the idea of a "gap" between the first two verses of Genesis 1" TARGET="_blank">Genesis 1 originate?

Thomas Chalmers of Edinburgh University first proposed the Gap Theory in 1814. By inserting a chronological gap between the first two verses of the Bible, Chalmers felt that he could make room for the vast ages demanded by the geologists of his day, yet still maintain a literal interpretation of the Scripture. This view, now called the Gap Theory, asserts that the account beginning at Genesis 1:2" TARGET="_blank">Genesis 1:2 describes a re-creation, not the original creation. George Pember widely disseminated Chalmer's Gap Theory, with some embellishments, in his book "Earth's Earliest Ages" (first edition, 1876). Pember believed that Genesis 1:1" TARGET="_blank">Genesis 1:1 described an original creation, which included a race of pre-Adamic men and a world of prehistoric animals. He taught that God destroyed this primeval creation when Lucifer fell. A footnote in the Scofield Reference Bible (first edition, 1917) enormously popularized the Gap Theory in the English speaking world. It is only fair to add that many able and godly teachers among us men deserving of deepest respect - hold this view.

D. Vallance
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Is it a sin to ask God "why"?

In the disappointments of life, is asking "Why?" appropriate?

Yes. If we want to benefit from our experiences, we need to learn God's ways. Often, the cost of trials is very high. Squandering such costly opportunities is a mistake. Trials are fruitful to "them which are exercised thereby" (Hebrews 12:11)." TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 12:11). If the question expresses our desire to learn more of what God is doing, it's appropriate. Even then, we must recognize that God is greater than our mind and we may not be able to understand His purpose (Job 11:7)." TARGET="_blank">Job 11:7). On the other hand, He may withhold the answer in order to teach us to trust Him.

It is not appropriate, however, to question if God's dealings are right or best or necessary. This expresses unbelief in our Father. The appropriateness of the question depends on it's motivation.

D. Oliver
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Is the head covering a symbol to teach the angels?

Is the head covering a symbol to teach the angels?

The passage simply states that a woman "ought to have a symbol of authority on her head because of the angels" (v. 10, ESV). If we confuse this passage with Ephesians 3:10," TARGET="_blank">Ephesians 3:10, we might add to it the thought of teaching the angels.

Elect angels are very aware of the value of accepting the sphere of responsibility God has assigned to them. This is the principle of headship. They see this principle expressed in the woman’s head covering and appreciate it.

D. Oliver
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