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What is the meaning of "our old man is crucified"?

What is the meaning of "our old man is crucified" (Romans 6:6)" TARGET="_blank">Romans 6:6)?

The tense of the verb, here translated "is crucified," points to a single event. In this case, the event is in the past, so some translations read "has been crucified" (JND) or "was crucified" (ESV, NASB, NKJV). The verb could be translated "co-crucified," clearly referring to the crucifixion of Christ. Our old man was co-crucified with Christ.

Paul opens this chapter asking, "Shall we continue in sin, that grace may abound?" In answering that, he extends the truths established in the previous chapter. Adam is the initial "federal head," representing us all. He sinned and we have received the condemnation of that: physically, "death passed on all men" (5:12). Legally (in God’s court), we are constituted sinners, because of his disobedience (v 19). Morally, we tend to choose sin, for God’s giving man greater light in the Law only increased the transgression (v 20). The Law showed man’s sinful disposition. Those under the federal headship of Christ receive justification (v 18). Can these who have been justified by faith (v 1), continue the same as they were when Adam was their representative head? No, they cannot because of one act of obedience and righteousness (vv 18, 19).

For believers, that act, the death of the cross, brought justification, meaning God has declared them righteous. By that same act, they will be made righteous (v 19). Now Paul shows that the same act has righteously ended their legal standing in Adam (6:6). God views the crucifixion of Christ as ending that standing. Our old man (our legal standing in Adam as sinners) was crucified together with Christ. We are no longer under the dominion (or reign) of sin and death (5:21 with v 17). God’s purpose in ending our former standing was that "we should not serve sin" (6:6). We cannot continue in sin.

D. Oliver
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Does marriage involve mutual submission?

What is the significance of "Likewise" in 1 Peter 3:7" TARGET="_blank">1 Peter 3:7?

Peter uses this word three times in his first epistle. The third use is "Likewise, ye younger, submit yourselves unto the elder" (1 Peter 5:5)." TARGET="_blank">1 Peter 5:5). As the overseers submit to the Chief Shepherd in doing the work He entrusted to them, so the younger are to submit to older believers. This is the Lord’s arrangement; it is done because of submission to Him and for His approval.

The other two uses of "likewise" in the epistle are in chapter three. The chapter begins, "Likewise, ye wives, be in subjection to your own husbands." This links this section of the chapter with the previous chapter. At its conclusion, chapter two highlights the suffering of the Lord Jesus which was inflicted unjustly, but which brought us such great blessing because the Sufferer trusted His God (vv 22-25). This is our pattern to follow (v 22). Earlier in the chapter believers are suffering wrongfully, but as they act in a godly way, blessing results. Now chapter three focuses specifically on a believing wife with an unbelieving husband. Through no fault of her own, she may suffer rejection, but she is to continue, as Sara did, to trust in the Lord and submit to her husband. She expects that her "well-doing" will be used by God for the blessing of her husband.

Most commentators take the "likewise" that begins the next paragraph addressed to husbands to merely balance the message to wives and continue the exhortation within the domestic sphere of marriage. Typically, they understand "as heirs together of the grace of life" to mean that the husband and wife share together in salvation, the grace of spiritual life. They may also understand "your prayers" to refer to the prayers of the husband and wife.

A difficulty with this view is that "likewise" in verse one and here in verse seven links this passage back to the truth in chapter two. The context is suffering wrongfully, which hopefully doesn’t apply to husbands in a Christian marriage. Giving honor to a believing wife "as unto the weaker vessel" hardly qualifies as suffering, or especially suffering wrongfully. The thought of submission which runs through chapter two hardly seems evident here either.

If we understand "the grace of life" to be a description of the exalted state of marriage, this may help. Christianity exalts marriage - whether involving believers or unbelievers - to a higher level. Marriage is a unique provision of God for the good (Genesis 2:18)" TARGET="_blank">Genesis 2:18) of the human family. It has the possibility of involving the highest experience of love known in human relationships (Ephesians 5:25-32)." TARGET="_blank">Ephesians 5:25-32). Christianity teaches that marriage has the potential of being the "crowning grace" of life. In addition, since the teaching addresses husbands, is it not likely that "your prayers" are the prayers of the husband? Why should the failure of a husband to properly honor his believing wife hinder his wife’s prayers?

The full potential of marriage is within the reach of a believing couple. If the believing husbands in this verse are living with unbelieving wives, just as the believing wives, in the previous verses, are living with an unbelieving spouse, what an encouragement to them! God has handed these husbands the possibility that their marriages will rise to their full potential if they show Christian grace and consideration. Thus honoring a wife who rejects the gospel and perhaps appears to reject her own husband can only be the result of submission to the Lord. In so doing, he will cooperate with the Lord in seeing his prayers answered in His wife’s salvation.

D. Oliver

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Am I accountable to the Lord for my thoughts?

Am I accountable to the Lord for my thoughts?

Eventually, the Lord will manifest our thoughts at the Bema, for Paul says, -Therefore judge nothing before the time, until the Lord come, who... will make manifest the counsels of the hearts" (I Corinthians 4:4)." TARGET="_blank">I Corinthians 4:4). Presently, we are likewise accountable because our thought life molds our actions; eventually that defines who we are (Proverbs 20:11; 23:7)." TARGET="_blank">Proverbs 20:11; 23:7). In addition, God appreciates right thoughts, even though a believer cannot do what he was thinking (2 Chronicles 6:8)," TARGET="_blank">2 Chronicles 6:8), but inappropriate thoughts grieve God, even though a believer does not do what he was thinking.

We are accountable for our response to God's Word, which includes l Peter 1:13, "Wherefore gird up the loins of your mind." In Bible times, when a man was going to walk or work, he would "gird up" his robe with a belt, holding the flowing ends of his clothing so they would not hinder him. Our thoughts, like the flowing robes, naturally go in many directions. If we do not bring them into control, they will hinder us in divine things now and will cause us loss when we stand before the Lord.

D. Oliver
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Did Christ eat the bread and drink the cup when he instituted the Lord's Supper?

THE LORD’S SUPPER

INSTITUTION

Did the Lord Himself partake of the emblems when He instituted the Supper?

In none of the three synoptic accounts is it said that He did, though the words of Matthew 26:29" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 26:29 and Mark 14:25" TARGET="_blank">Mark 14:25: “Verily I say unto you, I will drink no more of the fruit of the vine, until that day that I drink it new in the Kingdom,” may be taken to convey an inference that he did at least partake of the cup. Equally well they might be taken as explanatory of His not doing so. In any case, I believe it is a false inference, for in Luke 22:18," TARGET="_blank">Luke 22:18, where we have, I judge, the true order, both these words and similar ones in v. 16referring to what He had just eaten, are connected with the Passover. This order in Luke is, I believe, determinant, and permits us to give weight to two moral considerations. Why should the Lord need to partake of the memorial of His own sufferings? and how could He suitably partake of the emblems of His own body and blood?

W.H.

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Did Achan's stolen objects have spiritual symbolism?

Joshua 7:21." TARGET="_blank">Joshua 7:21. What would the “Babylonish garment and two hundred shekels of silver and the wedge of gold of fifty shekels weight” represent? What is the teaching in this verse?

I think they would stand for what most attracts the eye and fills the heart of the natural man; for what is more desirable to the flesh than fine clothes to deck oneself withal, and gold and silver, which will purchase “everything except peace of mind, and entrance anywhere except to heaven”! “Babylonish garment” is literally “a garment of Shinar,” the locality where Babylon was built, renowned, it is said, for its beautiful robes. The word for “garment,” is from a root meaning, “wide,” hence an ample covering, a cloak. It is used of Elijah’s mantle and also of the royal robe the King of Nineveh doffed in sign of repentance (Jonah 3: 6)." TARGET="_blank">Jonah 3: 6). Gesenius says these “cloaks of Shinar” were “variegated with figures, or interwoven with various colours, having the figures of men and beasts,” reminding one of the great copes worn by ecclesiastics to-day at their religious ceremonials—true “cloaks of Shinar” those! Let all see to it, lest fine clothes, ministering to the pride of life, or silver and gold, ministering to its “many foolish and hurtful lusts,” occupy our hearts! “But thou, 0 man of God, flee these things, and follow after righteousness, godliness, faith, love, patience, meekness.”

W.H.

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What are the differences between "the Spirit of God" and "the Spirit of Christ"?

What are the differences between "the Spirit of God" and "the Spirit of Christ"?

These two terms appear side by side: "But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of His" (Rom 8:9)." TARGET="_blank">Rom 8:9). The only way to consistently interpret this verse is to recognize that the Spirit of God indwells believers, and, apart from this indwelling, the individual is not a believer, does not belong to Christ. Therefore, these are two titles of the same Spirit. The expression, "the Spirit of Christ," occurs only one other time, ". . . the Spirit of Christ Which was in them did signify, when It testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow" (1Pe 1:11)." TARGET="_blank">1Pe 1:11). Peter identifies the Spirit of Christ, Who inspired Old Testament prophets to write about Christ, as the Holy Spirit (2Pe 1:21)." TARGET="_blank">2Pe 1:21).

"The Spirit of God" emphasizes His deity and His role within the Godhead. The One Who dwells in the temple of God must be God, but Paul tells us it is the Spirit of God (1Co 3:16)." TARGET="_blank">1Co 3:16). He is God. The miracles of the Lord were evidence of "the finger of God" (Luke 11:20)," TARGET="_blank">Luke 11:20), the direct work of God. Matthew quotes the Lord as saying they were by the Spirit of God (Matt 12:28)." TARGET="_blank">Matt 12:28). Paul indicates the Spirit’s role within the Godhead when He writes, "even so the things of God knoweth no man, but the Spirit of God" (1Co 2:11)." TARGET="_blank">1Co 2:11). He must be God, in order to know (understand, perceive) God’s thoughts and plans. He is the One Who reveals "the deep things of God" (v 10). On the other hand, the scene at Jordan demonstrates that He is distinguishable within the Godhead. The Father’s voice comes from heaven, addressing the Son on earth, Who is marked out by the Spirit of God’s visible descent on Him (Matt 3:16)." TARGET="_blank">Matt 3:16).

"The Spirit of Christ" emphasizes His relationship to Christ. He revealed Christ in His sufferings and coming glory to the OT prophets (1Pe 1:10-11)" TARGET="_blank">1Pe 1:10-11) and reveals Christ now in believers, whose characteristic mark of ownership is "the Spirit of Christ" (Romans 8:9)." TARGET="_blank">Romans 8:9).

Two similar titles occur only once each. They are "the Spirit of Jesus Christ" (Phi 1:19)" TARGET="_blank">Phi 1:19) and "the Spirit of Jesus" (Acts 16:7," TARGET="_blank">Acts 16:7, JND).

D. Oliver

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Is the narrow road a message for believers or a message of salvation?

Why do some say that the teaching of Matthew 7:13-14" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 7:13-14 is a message for believers?

Unbelievers (7:28) and believers (5:1) were both present while the Lord spoke. As in all that He did and said, His message was a model of good preaching; He set out the truth and then called for action. Verses 13 through 27 were His summary and call for action. Such was His skill in speaking that His summary applied to all who listened. He expressed universal principles. Submission to His Word results in "life which is life indeed" (1 Timothy 6:19," TARGET="_blank">1 Timothy 6:19, RV), enjoyed both now and eternally. Disobedience to His Word results in loss, suffered both now and eternally.

We who are believers need this reminder. The value of our present life and testimony depends on uncompromising submission to His Word. The degree to which we disregard His Word is the degree to which we will suffer loss at the Bema (1 Corinthians 3:12-15)." TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 3:12-15).

D. Oliver
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What is the hope in this life to which Paul refers in 1 Corinthians 15:19?

What is the hope in this life to which Paul refers in 1 Corinthians 15:19" TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 15:19?

What we hope for causes us to live as we do (Hebrews 11:1)." TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 11:1). In Romans 8," TARGET="_blank">Romans 8, we are assured that tribulation (vv. 35-39) cannot thwart God’s purpose to ultimately conform us to the image of His Son (vv. 29, 30). But in Romans 5," TARGET="_blank">Romans 5, tribulation works in the present to produce perseverance, character, and hope (vv. 3-4, NASB). What God will ultimately do, He does progres- sively making us more like His Son now. Our hope for the future gives us hope in the present.

This is true in 1 Corinthians 15," TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 15, too. Verses twelve through 34 emphasize the impact of the resurrection of Christ. It assures that believers will rise, Christ will reign, death will be defeated, and God will be all in all (vv. 26-28). Why then fear death? Hope for the future translates into living in the present. Therefore, Paul daily faced the possibility of a martyr’s death (vv. 30-32).

If believers are willing to hazard their lives for a hope that will die with them because it is ill-founded, "if Christ be not risen" (v. 14), they are miserably misguided and most to be pitied.

D. Oliver
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Why does the Bible say that Christ was an angel?

Is the Lord Jesus sometimes spoken of as an angel?

How can this be, seeing He is the Son of God, higher than the angels, and the Object of their worship?

We cannot be too jealous for the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ. The first chapter of Hebrews establishes His superiority over the angels in various ways, which we need not recapitulate. He has a place, a relation, prerogatives, and glory far transcending those of the highest of angelic beings. But the Hebrew word, “malak,” from a root “to depute,” and the Greek word, “angelos,” from a root meaning, “to announce,” both usually translated “angel,” are also frequently translated “messenger,” e.g., Genesis 33:3;" TARGET="_blank">Genesis 33:3; Numbers 20:14;" TARGET="_blank">Numbers 20:14; 1 Kings 19:2;" TARGET="_blank">1 Kings 19:2; 2 Kings 5:10;" TARGET="_blank">2 Kings 5:10; Haggai 1:13;" TARGET="_blank">Haggai 1:13; Isaiah 42" TARGET="_blank">Isaiah 42: 19 (presumably of Christ Himself); and in N.T., Matthew 9:10," TARGET="_blank">Matthew 9:10, referring to John Baptist; Luke 7:24," TARGET="_blank">Luke 7:24, messengers of the Baptist; Luke 9:52;" TARGET="_blank">Luke 9:52; 2 Corinthians 7:7;" TARGET="_blank">2 Corinthians 7:7; James 2:25." TARGET="_blank">James 2:25.

So that when we affirm that there are places where the words “malak” and “angelos” represent the Lord Himself, we are not bringing him down to the level of His own creatures, the angels, but emphasising the fact that He was the MESSENGER OF JEHOVAH. There is indeed a number of O.T. passages where we are obliged to understand the angel mentioned as a Divine Being. In Genesis 48:16," TARGET="_blank">Genesis 48:16, for instance, could it be a mere angel of whom Jacob speaks as His Redeemer, whose blessing he invokes on his grandsons? Is not this to place an angel on the level of God?

Then in Exodus 3:2," TARGET="_blank">Exodus 3:2, “the angel of the Lord” becomes “God” in v. 4. Later on Jehovah speaks of sending an angel before Israel, and adds, “Beware of him and obey his voice; provoke him not, for he will not pardon your transgressions, for My Name is in him” (Exododus 23:21). Could all this apply to a mere angelic being? In the case of Manoah, how could anyone but a Divine Person dare to identify Himself with the burnt offering? Certainly Manoah and his wife believed they had seen God (Judges 13:20-22)." TARGET="_blank">Judges 13:20-22). To assert that God made Himself known by merely angelic beings is a flagrant denial of the truth of the words, “The only begotten Son who is in the bosom of the Father, HE hath declared Him” (John 1:18)." TARGET="_blank">John 1:18). He did not cease to dwell there. When thus revealing God, the Son of Man was in heaven, though on earth (John 3:13)." TARGET="_blank">John 3:13). Blessed paradoxes! Human reasonings stumble at them; faith bows to God’s word and adores.

To close I would refer to Malachi 3" TARGET="_blank">Malachi 3: , where the word “malak” is translated twice “messenger”—(1) as applying to John the Baptist, (2) to the Son of God manifest in flesh as the Messenger of the covenant,” exactly the same Hebrew expression as is used in the rest of the O.T. for the “angel of the covenant.” Is it not conclusive then that this Being is Divine, and represents Him whom we know to-day as the Lord Jesus Christ?

W.H.

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