Should a young person seek the counsel of parents and elders about dating?

Should a young person seek the counsel of parents and elders about dating?

In cultures where elders or parents do not arrange a couple’s marriage this is important. The influence of a society that discounts the permanence of marriage will test the strength of a Christian marriage. Finding the right partner is a crucial choice and must be made carefully, yet marriage is a life-long commitment of two who generally have no experience in making such a momentous choice.

How wonderful that Christians have a wise heavenly Father to guide them by means of prayer and His Word! It is never too early in Christian life for a believer to submissively ask the Lord if and whom he should marry (1Pe 5:7)." TARGET="_blank">1Pe 5:7). In addition, wise Solomon tells us twice that "In the multitude of counselors there is safety" (Pro 11:14; 24:6)." TARGET="_blank">Pro 11:14; 24:6). Parents and elders ought to be people a young person respects for their wisdom and experience. Friends who are both spiritual and objective are also good candidates for inclusion in the "multitude of counselors." The brother and the sister in Christ who begin to keep company are each responsible before the Lord to determine His will for them in this matter (Rom 14:12)." TARGET="_blank">Rom 14:12). They cannot make their choice merely on either the advice of respected counselors or the conviction of their "dating partner" that their relationship is the Lord’s will. The input of others, however, should be weighed carefully, prayerfully, and as objectively as possible. The choice to date is not an irreversible choice, but believers should not make that choice lightly. To be kind and fair to each other, they should choose to spend time together only if each one would consider the other to be a reasonable candidate for marriage. The insights of trusted counselors can be helpful in assessing the prospective partner’s spirituality, personality, capabilities, habits, reliability, family background, and overall compatibility.

Years before dating is an issue, parents and elders can cultivate a relationship with these believers that will foster trust and enable effective and helpful communication in this important area. Before their children are thinking about dating, parents can promote family discussions that will help their children recognize important features they should weigh when thinking of a relationship with prospective marriage partners.

D. Oliver

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Is Jesus the Son of God equal with the Father?

Is Jesus the Son of God equal with the Father?

In dealing with a subject as sacred and profound as this, we must attempt to be clear in the meaning of the words we use. "Equal" is not the same as "equivalent." When two mathematical terms are equivalent, one may be used in the place of the other. In that sense, the Father and the Son are not equivalent. They are two distinct Persons and have distinct roles in the Godhead, yet God is one (Deu 6:4)" TARGET="_blank">Deu 6:4) and there is one God (4:35). The Father and the Son (and the Holy Spirit) are equal in substance and in every attribute. The Son is "the express image of His (God’s) person" (Heb 1:3)," TARGET="_blank">Heb 1:3), meaning He answers exactly to God’s substance. All that God is He is.

That they are two distinct Persons is quite evident in many Scriptures, including at His anointing (Mat 3:16, 17)" TARGET="_blank">Mat 3:16, 17) and transfiguration (17:5). Peter tells us that the voice on the Mount of Transfiguration was the Father’s, speaking from heaven (2Pe 1:17, 18)." TARGET="_blank">2Pe 1:17, 18). The Father’s voice came from heaven and the incarnate Son was on earth, while the Spirit descended from heaven to earth at His anointing. These three distinct Persons are equally God; the Father (Psa 102:24a, compared with Heb 1:10)" TARGET="_blank">Heb 1:10) and the Son (John 20:28)" TARGET="_blank">John 20:28) are both addressed as God

The leaders of the Jews knew that, when the Lord Jesus referred to God as His Father, He thus claimed equality with God (John 5:18)." TARGET="_blank">John 5:18). Of course, those unbelieving men didn’t always have their theology right, so we can accept their statement only if it agrees with God’s. "But unto the Son He saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever" (Heb 1:8)." TARGET="_blank">Heb 1:8). The speaker in this passage is God (v 1), the Father to this King (v 5), and He addresses the Son as God.

The psalms enumerate the unique works of God (Psa 105) and His unique attributes (Psa 139). The Gospel of the Son of God, John’s Gospel, demonstrates that our Lord did those works and possessed those attributes.

"I and my Father are one" (John 10:30)" TARGET="_blank">John 10:30) expresses the equality of the Father and the Son.

D. Oliver
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Does God give someone their faith as a gift so they can be saved?

What is "the gift of God" in Ephesians 2:8" TARGET="_blank">Ephesians 2:8?

This has often been discussed. Philippians 1:29" TARGET="_blank">Philippians 1:29 states that it "was given" to the Philippians to believe on Christ. That is not the teaching of Ephesians 2:8," TARGET="_blank">Ephesians 2:8, however. The grammar doesn’t seem to support this. If the antecedent of "that" ("that not of yourselves") were faith (Greek: "pistis," feminine), it would be feminine. Faith is not the theme of the passage, so the context would not point to that, either.

The passage deals with grace, but saying that grace is not of ourselves is redundant. It is evidently of God and, by definition, undeserved.

The gracious provisions of salvation (verses 4-6) will be unfolded eternally (verse 7). Being saved, resulting from grace and received by faith, is not accomplished by works, but by God Himself. This is further supported by verse 10, because they were God’s workmanship. What grace made them - as a result of their being saved - had the imprint of God’s hand. He did the work.

Simply put, their being saved was the gift of God.

D. Oliver
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What did the Lord mean by, "He that is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he [John]?

What did the Lord mean by, "He that is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he [John the Baptist]"?

Some take this to refer to the Lord Jesus. In the same chapter, He describes Himself as lowly (v 29). To consider that the most lowly of all is the greatest of all bows our hearts in worship! How wonderful and how wonderfully true! One difficulty with this interpretation is that we would normally think of the Lord Jesus as being the King over the kingdom, rather than in it. A stronger objection is the context. This is a contrast introduced by "nevertheless." The first part of the contrast deals with John’s official privilege and honor. In this interpretation, the Lord would be speaking about His person, not His office. To paraphrase, the Lord would be saying "no human has been given a higher privilege in service that John, but I am a greater person than others." That doesn’t seem balanced.

The first "sampling" is from the human family, "them that are born of women"; the second is from the kingdom of heaven. Could the Lord be contrasting greatness in terms of privilege? In the human family, no one has been more privileged than John in the work entrusted to him. In the kingdom of heaven, even one considered to be the least (in his service?) is more privileged through the grace bestowed on him than John was through the honored work he did. Greater than all we are privileged to do for God is the grace we have been privileged to receive from God.

D. Oliver
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Does "being asleep" indicate that departed believers are not conscious?

Does "being asleep" indicate that departed believers are not conscious?

The New Testament uses this imagery for death about 18 times. All these refer to believers or children. Its use includes "the fathers" (2 Pe 3:4)," TARGET="_blank">2 Pe 3:4), David (Acts 13:36)," TARGET="_blank">Acts 13:36), and Lazarus (John 11:11, 12)," TARGET="_blank">John 11:11, 12), as well as some from the Corinthian and Thessalonian assemblies (1 Cor 11:30;" TARGET="_blank">1 Cor 11:30; 1 Th 4:13, 14, 15)." TARGET="_blank">1 Th 4:13, 14, 15).

Cults teach that this is a cessation of consciousness, "soul sleep," but Paul looked forward to the possibility of departing this life and being with Christ (Phi 1:23)" TARGET="_blank">Phi 1:23) in a far better state than the present (see also 2 Cor 5:8)." TARGET="_blank">2 Cor 5:8). In this state, the souls of martyrs speak with deep emotion (Rev 6:10)." TARGET="_blank">Rev 6:10). This is not suspended consciousness. The Lord’s teaching in the story of the rich man (Luke 16:19-31)" TARGET="_blank">Luke 16:19-31) leaves no question that Abraham, the believing dead, and the unbelieving dead are all conscious. If death is "soul sleep", then the exceptional case of Moses and Elijah’s appearing with the Lord on the Mount (Mat 17:3)" TARGET="_blank">Mat 17:3) poses further difficulties. If the dead are unconscious, did God bring Moses and Elijah back from death to talk with the Lord? Did He then put them to death a second time?

These passages indicate that departed believers from both the Old and New Testaments share a state of full consciousness and the joys of the presence of God. They are conscious of events on earth only to the extent that those events bring joy to heaven (Luke 15:7, 10)" TARGET="_blank">Luke 15:7, 10) or are crisis events in God’s program (Rev 11:16-18)." TARGET="_blank">Rev 11:16-18).

D. Oliver
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Did Joseph practice fortune telling or divination?

Are we to understand from Genesis 45:5," TARGET="_blank">Genesis 45:5,18 that Joseph actually used divination?

Though divination was common in Egypt, it is hard to suppose that a pious believer in the true God like Joseph should use such practices. Moreover, as one in close touch with God and an interpreter of dreams, etc., what drawing could he have to descend to such heathenish customs?

The cup may very well have been similar to those used for this purpose, but it is noticeable that Joseph only says to his brethren, “wot ye not that such a man as I can certainly divine?” (v. 15), without affirming that he did. It must be admitted that his word through his steward does seem to go further. The true explanation may be that in order to keep up his character before his brethren, as an orthodox Egyptian, so as the more effectually to carry out his deliberate plan for their conviction and restoration, he might feel justified in conveying this momentary impression that he divined. If he did so, it is not commended nor is it specifically blamed. We are aware in reading the Old Testament that even men of God had not the same standards of truthfulness, that are binding on us to-day. The word here for “divine” (nihesh) is translated, “I have learned by experience” (Genesis 30:27)," TARGET="_blank">Genesis 30:27), and “did diligently observe” (1 Kings 20:33)," TARGET="_blank">1 Kings 20:33), but generally, “to use enchantments” (2 Kings 17" TARGET="_blank">2 Kings 17: I7 2 Kings 21:6)." TARGET="_blank">2 Kings 21:6). Such divination is strictly forbidden later in the Word of God (see Levticus 19:26; Deuteronomy 19:10)." TARGET="_blank">Deuteronomy 19:10).
W.H.

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Why do some versions of the Bible not include the name Lucifer in Isaiah 14:12?

Why do some versions of the Bible not include the name Lucifer in Isaiah 14:12" TARGET="_blank">Isaiah 14:12?

This page was adapted from an answer at Truth and Tidings Magazine by David Oliver.

Lucifer is a name that means the "shining one, light-bearer, morning star" (Brown-Driver-Briggs). In the English language, we capitalize names, but in Hebrew this is not the case; without using capitals in the Hebrew text, translators must sometimes make an intelligent guess as to whether a word is a general noun or a name. This is a case in which the translators of various Bible versions have come to different conclusions.

If John Nelson Darby’s French translation of this verse (cited by the person who sent in these questions) were translated back into English, the Hebrew word would be the "brilliant star." However, in Darby’s English Bible translation, the text says, "How art thou fallen from heaven, Lucifer, son of the morning!" A Bible translator may choose whether to translate a word as a general noun (as in Darby’s French translation) or a proper name or title (as in his English translation). This is done based on the context of the words. This involves some degree of interpretation in translating. Because there is a variety of opinion on how the translation should be done, perhaps some translators (ESV, NASB, YLT, and others) gave a neutral translation. That is, they did not interpret the text, but simply translated the words exactly.

The problem with translating this verse is determining where the quote from "all the kings of the nations" (v 9) stops. The words of their mourning for the fallen king of Babylon (v 4) continue at least to the end of verse 11. The passage likely contains a reference to Canaanite and Syrian mythology (Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament, TWOT). The son of one of the gods attempted to, but was unable, to hold the throne. He "attempted to climb to the highest point of heaven and as the dawn star [emphasis added] was ever condemned to be cast down into Hades." If the heathen kings are still speaking in verse 12, they may be citing this mythology when "the dawn star" was thrown down. Even if this is the reference, the Spirit of God moves from this to the more profound incident of which this is a reminder (perhaps elements of the myths were actually perversions of truth revealed long before). Only one truly aspired to superiority above other angelic creatures ("upon the mount of assembly" with a throne above "the stars of God" in v 13, also see Job 1:6; 2:1;" TARGET="_blank">Job 1:6; 2:1; and 38:7) and to be "like the Most High." The pride of the king of Babylon was like Satan’s pride, and the fall of the king is similar to Satan’s condemnation to be in the Lake of Fire (Rev 20:10)." TARGET="_blank">Rev 20:10). The "light-bearer" or "morning star" in this passage is Lucifer, Satan himself, whether the word is translated "morning star," "light-bearer," or "day star" rather than "Lucifer."

D. Oliver

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Do the Scriptures guide only the husband to contribute financially to the church?

Do the Scriptures guide only the husband to contribute financially at the Lord’s supper?

I Corinthians 16:2" TARGET="_blank">I Corinthians 16:2 teaches that "every one of you" ("each of you," JND) should set aside funds on the first day of the week. Although a couple’s resources are one, is she not as much a priest as her husband? Husbands are not priests who offer on behalf of their wife or family; the males offer on behalf of the assembly. Is it not a fitting testimony to the wife’s priesthood that she should offer her financial sacrifice in the assembly? Does he partake of the emblems on her behalf, or does she remember the Lord individually? Is a believing couple received into the assembly as a couple or as individuals? Sapphira did not die (Acts 5:10)" TARGET="_blank">Acts 5:10) because she was one with Ananias in marriage, but because she was one with him in tempting the Spirit of the Lord (verse 9). In an assembly, we stand before the Lord as individuals.

D. Oliver
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What ways does God communicate to us?

The following is a listof ways that God has used to communicate with us in the past. The Holy Scriptures are now completed and provide us with the entire revealed word of God. You should not expect to receive visions, dreams or prophets speaking to God today.

How God communicated His message in the past:

His secret things.
Amos 3:7" TARGET="_blank">Amos 3:7 Surely the Lord GOD will do nothing, but he revealeth his secret unto his servants the prophets.

At various times and in different ways.
Hebrews 1:1." TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 1:1.God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,

By an audible voice.
1 Samuel 3:4-14." TARGET="_blank">1 Samuel 3:4-14. And the LORD came, and stood, and called as at other times, Samuel, Samuel. Then Samuel answered, Speak; for thy servant heareth.

By angels

Dan 8:15-26;" TARGET="_blank">Dan 8:15-26; …when I, even I Daniel, had seen the vision, and sought for the meaning, then, behold, there stood before me as the appearance of a man.

By dreams and visions.
Numbers 12:6;" TARGET="_blank">Numbers 12:6; If there be a prophet among you, I the LORD will make myself known unto him in a vision, and will speak unto him in a dream.

Men who were under the influence of the Holy Spirit while prophesying.
Luke 1:67;" TARGET="_blank">Luke 1:67; And his father Zacharias was filled with the Holy Ghost, and prophesied…

Spoke in the name of the Lord.
James 5:10." TARGET="_blank">James 5:10.Take, my brethren, the prophets, who have spoken in the name of the Lord,

Frequently spoke in parables and riddles.
2 Samuel 12:1-6;" TARGET="_blank">2 Samuel 12:1-6; And the LORD sent Nathan unto David. And he came unto him, and said unto him, There were two men in one city; the one rich, and the other poor

Shad Sluiter

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Should church put you on a guilt trip?

Some have suggested that gospel teaching should not convey at sin makes men guilty, but that sin is shameful. Is this right?

Sin is shameful, but it is far more. It is rebellion against divine sovereignty. It offends the very character of God. It ultimately violates God's righteous law, which was given "that every mouth may be stopped and ALL THE WORLD may become GUILTY BEFORE GOD" (Romans 3:19)." TARGET="_blank">Romans 3:19). Guilt is very real and stems from breaking God's law.

Some object because this puts people on a "guilt trip." To soft pedal the reality of guilt is no kindness to the lost. Guilt is NEVER relived by denial. Evading guilt is a serious mistake; guilt is the central issue between man and his Creator. In salvation God removes guilt. None can know guilt removed without facing and acknowledging it. Let the preacher clearly declare the problem of guilt and then the remedy, "Being justified (CLEARED of all guilt!) freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus" (Romans 3:24)." TARGET="_blank">Romans 3:24).

J. Slabaugh

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