How can a couple balance a busy life and the care of their children?

How can a young couple balance a busy life and the care of their children?

The value the world apparently places on children differs from the Lord’s in Psalm 127:3" TARGET="_blank">Psalm 127:3: "Lo, children are an heritage of the Lord." A child is potentially the greatest heritage a couple will leave behind them. Viewing children in that light elevates the priority of nurturing them in God’s truth. Rather than a heritage of money or renown, parents whose child loves and lives God’s truth have left a wealthy heritage. The child has true riches; the coming generation is richer; the work of God prospers.

Personal interaction with a child in which the parent models God’s character and mentors the child in God’s truth is time well spent. Many things that clamor for our time will pass away unnoticed. This child is a God-given responsibility and opportunity.

Allowing a child to manage his parents’ time will likely spoil him. Providing time for a child’s spiritual, moral, social, and mental development will likely enrich him.

It may be a very trying experience for a couple if the Lord doesn’t entrust them with a child. It may involve deep trials and disappointments if He does. Nothing parents can do will guarantee a child’s salvation or spiritual enrichment, but a parent can increase the likelihood of these blessings. The best parents fail to some degree. How wonderful to be able to commit a child to God in prayer! We always expect the best from Him.

D. Oliver
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If a husband does not fulfill his responsibilities, does his wife have the right to leave him for a

If a husband does not fulfill his responsibilities, does his wife have the right to leave him for a time?

No. Apart from threats or abuse that give justifiable concern for her physical well-being, separation is not an option. Paul writes about a mutually agreed separation so that a couple may more fully give themselves to spiritual pursuits (1 Corinthians 7:5)." TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 7:5). Even in this, he warns of the danger of temptation because of the separation. It is only "for a time."

A wife is not responsible for her husbands fulfilling his responsibilities; she is only responsible to fulfill hers before the Lord.

Separating to resolve problems not only opens both partners to temptation, but it moves them further apart emotionally and may reduce the motivation to resolve the issues in the fear of the Lord. Too often, a couple may end a separation in order to avoid temptation and in their rush, fail to actually resolve any issues. The net result is to more firmly entrench the bad habits that create the problem.

The wifes (or husbands) first resource is prayer, and a first step of progress is a mutual agreement to pray together for the help of God and for grace to be changed by Him. If there seems to be no resolution of the difficulties, seek the help of a trusted, trustworthy, wise, spiritual believer (or couple) who can effectively bring the Word of God into the circumstances.

D. Oliver
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Does 1 Peter 3:3 apply only to the women's style of dress?

ADORNMENT

Do the exhortations in 1 Peter 3:3," TARGET="_blank">1 Peter 3:3, and 1 Timothy 2:9" TARGET="_blank">1 Timothy 2:9 refer to sisters only, or is it scriptural for a brother to adorn himself with a beautiful chain and badges, bracelet watch and gold rings?

One has heard it remarked, and that by way of warning, that we too often read the exhortations of the Bible for other people, rather than for ourselves. Thus parelts know all the Scriptures about the obedience of children, but there are exhortations to parents and specially to fathers. Likewise with masters and servants, let each study first in the fear of God their own special duties and then both will run more easily. Certainly, 1 Peter 3:3" TARGET="_blank">1 Peter 3:3 does primarily apply to the wives—the exhortation running on, as is clear, from ver. I: “Likewise ye wives,” and I presume, then to women in general, but in verse 7 we read, “Likewise ye husbands”, and certain exhortations are then addressed to them which are very important.

So in 1 Timothy 2" TARGET="_blank">1 Timothy 2: “the men” (i.e. brethren) are to pray in every place—that is of course—lead in prayer—”holding up holy hands, without wrath and doubting.” Then the apostle expresses the will of God to the women, and begins with the manner in which they should attire themselves. We might have said with our natural will and intelligence, that men needed the exhortation as much as women, but clearly the Holy Spirit judges otherwise. Some men may be effeminate and very vain, but there is clearly as a rule a stronger tendency in the female temperament, to adorn herself in the way forbidden, than in the opposite sex.

W.H.

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Why is Joseph

Why is Joseph’s genealogy given in Matthew's Gospel, instead of that of Mary, seeing that Joseph was not the father of the Lord Jesus?

There are, as is well known, not one but two genealogies of Christ in the Gospels. In Matthew 1" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 1: His royal descent is traced from Abraham, through David and the kings of Judah, down to Joseph, His legal, though not His actual father. But in Luke 3" TARGET="_blank">Luke 3 His natural descent is traced from Mary’s own father, Heli, through a different branch of the Davidic family up to Adam. The phrase, “Being, as was supposed, the son of Joseph,” which is parenthetically inserted in Luke 3:23," TARGET="_blank">Luke 3:23, really answers the questions asked above. For since He was supposed, or legally reckoned, to be Joseph’s son, it was necessary that there should be what might be called an official genealogy, through him to David and Abraham, as well as that through His mother, in order that all objections to His claim to be “Son of David” should be silenced. In Matthew’s Gospel Joseph is prominent, and in Luke’s, Mary, not merely in the genealogies, but in the entire narrative, which in each case is as it should be, in view of the Jewish character of the former, and the Gentile character of the latter.

W.R.

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If there is only "one baptism", why do we practice water baptism for believers?

In light of Ephesians 4:5," TARGET="_blank">Ephesians 4:5, why do we practice water baptism?

The reasoning behind this question seems to be that "one baptism" is the baptism of the Spirit (Acts 1:5;" TARGET="_blank">Acts 1:5; 1 Corinthians 12:13)" TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 12:13) and therefore Christians have no other baptism - no water baptism.

Two possible responses to this depend on how we interpret "one baptism." Some base their interpretation on the grouping they see in the seven "one things" in Ephesians 4:4-6." TARGET="_blank">Ephesians 4:4-6. The first three form a group: one Body, one Spirit (Who formed the Body), one hope (belonging to the Body, see 1:18). The next three form a group: one Lord (Whom all obey), one faith (by which all have trusted Christ or one body of revealed truth which all keep by obedience), one baptism (by which all have expressed their union with Him). The last is one God and Father of all. The first may be positional (what God has done), the second practical (what we are to do), the third theological and sums up the previous groups. If we accept this interpretation, the one baptism is water baptism which God has ordained for every believer in this age.

There may be reason, however, to view the one baptism as the baptism of the Spirit. The words, "There is" at the beginning of verse 4 are supplied by the translators. The words may obscure the connection of verses 4 through 6 with verse 3. Paul is expanding his statement, "the unity of the Spirit." At Pentecost, the Spirit formed a unique entity that had never existed before. That unity, the subject of the mystery (ch 3), is composed of both Jews and Gentiles (ch 1, 2). In these verses, Paul sums up the positional teaching of the previous chapters. He uses it as the pivot on which he bases his practical exhortation ("endeavoring to keep . . .").

The one Lord is the One in Whom all are united and, anticipating the rest of the epistle, Whom all are to obey. The one faith is the revealed body of truth, now including the mystery regarding the Church. The one baptism is the one event that formed the Body. Apart from this interpretation, Paul would be speaking about the unity of the Spirit without mentioning when the Spirit formed it. If that is the interpretation of "one baptism," in these three verses (vv 4-6), Paul is dealing with our position (what God has done for us). That baptism will never be repeated and does not take place when a believer is saved. The Lord said it would take place not many days after He was with His disciples (Acts 1:5)." TARGET="_blank">Acts 1:5). Paul teaches that water baptism expresses our union with Christ (Romans 6:4, 5)" TARGET="_blank">Romans 6:4, 5) and it is our practical responsibility to be baptized. Further, the Lord associates baptism with discipleship and the message of the gospel in this age (Matthew 28:19, 20;" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 28:19, 20; Mark 16:15, 16)." TARGET="_blank">Mark 16:15, 16). He also indicates that the believer is responsible to be baptized and that is done not by the Spirit but by those who "go," "make disciples," "baptizing them," "teaching them" (Matthew 28:19, 20)." TARGET="_blank">Matthew 28:19, 20).

D. Oliver
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What does the "fear of death" mean in Hebrews 2?

What is the significance of "fear of death" in this passage?

At least three explanations are possible for the statement in verse 16, "takes hold of the seed of Abraham" (JND). One is that it is just a way of stating for Hebrew readers that He became a man (wouldn’t everyone want to be a child of Abraham?). That would seem to merely repeat the truth of the earlier verses (vv 6-8) and also slight the accuracy of the Spirit’s inspiration. Second, some take it to refer to Abraham’s spiritual seed, all believers. That seems to be out of context with Abraham’s importance in the rest of Hebrews (6:13-18; 11:8-10) and it is truth from Galatians, rather than Hebrews.

The third possibility, taking it to mean that in becoming a man, Christ undertook to meet the need of the literal seed of Abraham, seems more consistent with the thrust of Hebrews. Abraham’s posterity possessed covenant promises from God. It was an everlasting covenant that promised them both the Land for an everlasting possession (Gen 17:4-8)" TARGET="_blank">Gen 17:4-8) and an Heir ("Thy Seed," singular) to possess it (13:15). But how could an heir claim an everlasting possession in a realm under the bondage of corruption (Rom 8:21)" TARGET="_blank">Rom 8:21) and death? The devil, who stands opposed to every purpose God has for His Son, accomplished a masterful stroke in Eden. All things might have been committed to the Son (John 3:35)," TARGET="_blank">John 3:35), but how could that work out in a creation where Satan held authority (Luke 4:6)" TARGET="_blank">Luke 4:6) and exerted the power of death? All the seed of Abraham lived with the "fear of death" in a realm of bondage under a ruler more fearsome than a Pharoah. None of them could claim the Land for an everlasting possession.

The expression "takes hold of" occurs one other time in Hebrews. "I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt" (8:9, quoting Jer 31:32)." TARGET="_blank">Jer 31:32). That redemption from Egypt prefigures another greater redemption when the Lord will bring them into their land for an everlasting inheritance. How?

There was One Who "took part" of flesh and blood with the children of Abraham’s line (Mat 1:1)," TARGET="_blank">Mat 1:1), Who would - by dying and breaking the power of death - nullify him that had the power of death. Now living and exalted, He waits for the day when His people willingly turn to Him and He will bring them into their promised rest.

D. Oliver
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Will young children be taken in the rapture?

CHILDREN AND THE RAPTURE

Is it scriptural to say that the children of believers shall be caught up when the Lord comes?

Some evangelists say they will, while others say they will not. I mean children not old enough to understand.

Does not the difference of view among the Lord’s servants arise from the fact that there is no clear revelation in the Word of God? It would seem unthinkable that the small children of unconverted parents throughout the world should be all caught away when the Lord returns, for if any go all must go. It is equally unthinkable that the irresponsible children of Christians, the subjects of believing prayer, should be all left behind when their parents are taken, for if any are left all must be left. Can we not leave the matter to God in the assurance that the Judge of all the earth will do right? In the meantime diligently point the little ones to the Saviour.

W.H.

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Can a Christian commit suicide?

Can a Christian commit suicide?

It is possible for a believer to commit suicide. But it is not necessary, regardless of the reasons for contemplating suicide.

First of all, if you are suffering from symptoms of depression, you should seek a doctor's help. Clinical depression is treatable with medication, good nutrition and counseling. In regards to your spiritual struggles, there are two Bible verses that can help a Christian put emotional pain in perspective.

First, God says he always provides a way of escape or endurance for trials in life.

1 Corinthians 10:13" TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 10:13 No temptation has overtaken you that is not common to man. God is faithful, and he will not let you be tempted beyond your ability, but with the temptation he will also provide the way of escape, that you may be able to endure it.

Second, Pain and suffering is part of the maturing process that God give us. One good scriptural example of maturing through suffering is mentioned by Paul…

2 Corinthians 12:7-10" TARGET="_blank">2 Corinthians 12:7-10 So to keep me from becoming conceited because of the surpassing greatness of the revelations, a thorn was given me in the flesh, a messenger of Satan to harass me, to keep me from becoming conceited. (8) Three times I pleaded with the Lord about this, that it should leave me. (9) But he said to me, "My grace is sufficient for you, for my power is made perfect in weakness." Therefore I will boast all the more gladly of my weaknesses, so that the power of Christ may rest upon me. (10) For the sake of Christ, then, I am content with weaknesses, insults, hardships, persecutions, and calamities. For when I am weak, then I am strong.

You can take comfort in your current sufferings from this verse in several ways:

1)   We don't know what Paul's trial was. This "thorn in the flesh" is deliberately unknown to us. Perhaps you can relate better to Paul with your sufferings in this way.
2)   Prayer is not immediately answered in the way we expect. Paul knew what he wanted. He prayed three times with great passion. He had to live with his chronic problem.
3)   God's grace to deal with a problem is a greater blessing than the removal of the problem. Paul learned to trust God, preventing him from becoming proud of who he was in himself.

Your emotional pain that you suffer right now can be used to learn dependence on God. Use this struggle as an opportunity to grow through pain.

You may also be asking the question:

If a Christian commits suicide, will he / she still go to heaven?

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Was Jesus in Hell between his death and resurrection?

Did Christ go to hell after dying on the cross? Did Christ suffer for sins in hell? Was he there to open the gates of hell to liberate those lost in their sins? Is hell the same as the Lake of Fire?

The short answer:

No. Jesus did not go to suffer in the flames of Hell. After dying on the cross, Christ went to the place of departed spirits. That is, he went to SHEOL (the Hebrew word) or HADES (the Greek word). He did not go to suffer in the flames of hell or go to Lake of Fire as some mistakenly believe.

The full answer:

To give a full answer to these questions one must study several scriptures and the meaning of the word SHEOL translated HELL in some versions of the Bible.

What scirptures say that Christ was in sheol/hades?

Starting with Psalm 16:10," TARGET="_blank">Psalm 16:10, which is quoted in the New Testament in Acts 2" TARGET="_blank">Acts 2 in reference to Christ and his resurrection, we see the two words used in reference to Christ and his resurrection.

Psalms 16:10-11" TARGET="_blank">Psalms 16:10-11 For you will not abandon my soul to Sheol, or let your holy one see corruption. (11) You make known to me the path of life; in your presence there is fullness of joy; at your right hand are pleasures forevermore. (ESV)

Here is the same verse from Psalm 16" TARGET="_blank">Psalm 16 in the King James Version. Notice that hell is used in place of sheol.

Psalms 16:10-11" TARGET="_blank">Psalms 16:10-11 For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption. (11) Thou wilt shew me the path of life: in thy presence is fulness of joy; at thy right hand there are pleasures for evermore. (KJV)

Peter is giving his great Day of Pentecost speech in Acts 2" TARGET="_blank">Acts 2 when he quotes from Psalm 16." TARGET="_blank">Psalm 16. The prophecy of Christ’s resurrection was written many years before by King David.

Acts 2:22-33" TARGET="_blank">Acts 2:22-33 "Men of Israel, hear these words: Jesus of Nazareth, a man attested to you by God with mighty works and wonders and signs that God did through him in your midst, as you yourselves know-- (23) this Jesus, delivered up according to the definite plan and foreknowledge of God, you crucified and killed by the hands of lawless men. (24) God raised him up, loosing the pangs of death, because it was not possible for him to be held by it. (25) For David says concerning him, "'I saw the Lord always before me, for he is at my right hand that I may not be shaken; (26) therefore my heart was glad, and my tongue rejoiced; my flesh also will dwell in hope. (27) For you will not abandon my soul to Hades, or let your Holy One see corruption. (28) You have made known to me the paths of life; you will make me full of gladness with your presence.' (29) "Brothers, I may say to you with confidence about the patriarch David that he both died and was buried, and his tomb is with us to this day. (30) Being therefore a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him that he would set one of his descendants on his throne, (31) he foresaw and spoke about the resurrection of the Christ, that he was not abandoned to Hades, nor did his flesh see corruption. (32) This Jesus God raised up, and of that we all are witnesses. (33) Being therefore exalted at the right hand of God, and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, he has poured out this that you yourselves are seeing and hearing. (ESV)

In the KJV the verse is written with the word hell in place of hades.

Acts 2:27" TARGET="_blank">Acts 2:27 Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell, neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption. (KJV)
Act 2:31" TARGET="_blank">Act 2:31 He seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell, neither his flesh did see corruption. (KJV)

The meaning of SHEOL and HADES

In the King James Version, the Hebrew word SHEOL is usually translated as hell. The corresponding Greek word HADES is also translated as hell. Sheol means “the place of departed spirits” and hades means the “place of the dead”. The word “hell” conjures images of darkness, flames, torment and agony. However, the departed spirits of the Old Testament believers also went to sheol/hades, but not to suffer torments.

According to Vines Dictionary…

Hades is the region of departed spirits of the lost". This includes the blessed dead in periods preceding the ascension of Christ. It corresponds to "Sheol" in the Old Testament. In the Authorized King James Version it has been unhappily rendered "hell" (Psalms 16:10)" TARGET="_blank">Psalms 16:10) or "the grave," (Genesis 37:35)" TARGET="_blank">Genesis 37:35) or "the pit" (Numbers 16:30-33)." TARGET="_blank">Numbers 16:30-33). In the New Testament the Revised Version always used the rendering "hades". In the Old Testament, they have not been uniform in the translation. For example in Isaiah 14:15" TARGET="_blank">Isaiah 14:15 it is translated "hell" with a note in the margin that says "Sheol". Usually they have "Sheol" in the text and "the grave" in the margin. Sheol never denotes the grave, nor is the permanent region of the lost.

Translation Challenge

Most Bible translators avoid using “hell” to translate the words sheol and hades. Instead they simply transcribe the words from the original Hebrew (sheol) or Greek (hades) as seen above in the examples from the English Standard Version (ESV). Other translations that use “sheol” instead of hell include the New American Standard Bible (NASB), The New King James Version (NKJV), Darby, and Young’s Literal Translation. The NIV and other loose translations and paraphrases use a phrase such as “the realm of the dead”. So to say that Christ went to hell means that he went to a place where spirits have no bodies.

Hades – one place with two conditions

There is a wider meaning to sheol and hades than what the word hell – eternal torments - brings to mind. Sheol/hades is a place, or perhaps better stated a condition, with two very distinct environments. The lost suffer in Hades while the saved enjoy rest there. For example, in Luke 16:19-31," TARGET="_blank">Luke 16:19-31, the rich man opened his eyes in Hades being in flames of torments. Lazarus died as well and was in Hades as well, but in a completely different condition. Lazarus was “far off” at Abraham’s side. There was “a great chasm” separating Lazarus from the Rich Man which was impossible to cross which indicates that there are two separate places to which people went. However both are in “the place of departed spirits” – that is SHEOL or HADES. When the Lord was on the cross, he promised the repentant thief that “today you will be with me in paradise”. This refers to the place of departed spirits of the saved. The thief went to the same place as Lazarus – “to Abraham’s side.” It is presumed that the other non-repentant thief went to hades the same day, but to the place of torments.

Where did Jesus suffer for sins – while on the cross or did he suffer in hell?

The fact that the KJV bible states that Jesus went to “hell” leads some to the conclusion that Christ he went to hell to suffer for our sins. As seen in the preceding paragraphs, the word hell (sheol/hades) does not necessarily indicate a place of suffering, only the place of departed spirits.

The idea of Christ suffering while his body lay in the tomb is contrary to other scriptures that teach he suffered for our sins on the cross. “He himself bore our sins in his body on the tree” (1 Peter 2:24)" TARGET="_blank">1 Peter 2:24) “once for all” (Hebrews 10:10)." TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 10:10). He canceled “the record of debt that stood against us with its legal demands. This he set aside, nailing it to the cross.” (Colossians 2:14)." TARGET="_blank">Colossians 2:14). The cross is “the power of God” (1 Corinthians 1:18)" TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 1:18) to those of us who are saved.

The cross is the lowest point that Christ’s sufferings took him.

Philippians 2:8-9" TARGET="_blank">Philippians 2:8-9 And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. (9) Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name,

Hebrews 12:2" TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 12:2 looking to Jesus, the founder and perfecter of our faith, who for the joy that was set before him endured the cross, despising the shame, and is seated at the right hand of the throne of God.

The work of salvation was completely finished when Christ died. “When Jesus had received the sour wine, he said, "It is finished," and he bowed his head and gave up his spirit.” (John 19:30)." TARGET="_blank">John 19:30). His suffering in our place was completed. His soul/spirit went to the paradise side of hades. Jesus did not go to the torments of hell. Jesus’ suffering ended the moment He died. The payment for sin was paid. He then awaited the resurrection of His body and His return to glory in His ascension.

Did Jesus go to hell? No. He did not suffer in the flames of torments.
Did Jesus go to sheol/hades? Yes. He went to the place of departed spirits.

Other questions that are related to this are:

“Did Christ take people from Hades to Heaven when he rose from the dead?” Ephesians 4:8-10" TARGET="_blank">Ephesians 4:8-10 talks about Christ “leading a host of captives” when he ascended.

“Did Christ go talk to spirits in Hades to declare his victory over Satan and death?” 1 Peter 3:18-20" TARGET="_blank">1 Peter 3:18-20 has many interesting interpretations to consider on this question.

Some of the questions below will help you see the meaning in these statements.

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Is it wrong for a woman to pray with other believers gathered in a home?

Is it wrong for a woman to pray with other believers gathered in a home?

Two primary passages, 1 Corinthians 14:34" TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 14:34 and 1 Timothy 2:12," TARGET="_blank">1 Timothy 2:12, are likely the reason for this question. The first specifically deals with church gatherings, as the context in the chapter makes clear. The passage in 1 Timothy 2" TARGET="_blank">1 Timothy 2 is likewise in the context of public assembly gatherings. At least three considerations indicate this. First, in the next chapter, Paul clarifies that behavior in the house of God (v. 15) is the focus of this letter. Second, if this injunction in chapter 2 includes the home sphere, this seems to contradict Paul’s statement that older women are to teach younger women (Titus 2:3)." TARGET="_blank">Titus 2:3). If we understand 1 Timothy 2" TARGET="_blank">1 Timothy 2 to be public gatherings and the Titus passage, in keeping with its context, to be private instruction, the seeming contradiction disappears. Third, in 1 Timothy 2," TARGET="_blank">1 Timothy 2, Paul insists that the males pray in every place (v. 8). If the context of this chapter is the home, is Paul excluding women from praying in their closet?

The only remaining concern, then, is a woman’s "usurping authority over the man" (2:11). Strong’s Enhanced Dictionary gives the meaning of this verb as "one who acts on his own authority, autocratic, . . . to govern, exercise dominion over one." In the assembly where God’s design displays the male’s headship and the woman’s submission (1 Cor. 11:3-16)," TARGET="_blank">1 Cor. 11:3-16), a woman does nothing that detracts from that display. The prayer in Acts 4" TARGET="_blank">Acts 4: 24-30 is the assembly’s united prayer. Whoever spoke those words in prayer lead the entire assembly in expressing their desires. Thus, in a special way, praying in the assembly leads the entire gathering in the presence of the Lord. Were a woman to pray, she would be publicly leading and therefore limiting the display of male leadership.

Apart from assembly gatherings, a woman’s prayer more particularly expresses only her own burden. Hannah’s praying exemplifies this (1 Samuel 1:11)." TARGET="_blank">1 Samuel 1:11). A woman praying aloud privately, with her husband or children, or with her friends does not affect the public testimony of male headship. She is not leading a united prayer as one does in an assembly meeting. Her praying in the home appears to be consistent with the Bible’s teaching.

D. Oliver
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