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Is going to the doctor a sign of a lack of faith?

Is going to the doctor a sign of a lack of faith? Some forms of faith-healing teaching states that since God is capable of healing the body as an answer to our prayers it would be sinful or at least showing a lack of faith to go to the doctor.
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Gospel Hall dot Org exists to share information about assemblies of Christians who gather to the Name of the Lord Jesus Christ, to raise awareness of the gospel message and teaching about Christian living in a New Testament Church.

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Is the "Rapture" distinct from Christ's return to earth?

Is the "Rapture" distinct from Christ's return to earth?

The second coming of Christ Ahas two segments: the rapture into the air (1 Thessalonians 4:17);" TARGET="_blank">1 Thessalonians 4:17); the return onto the earth (Zechariah 14:4)." TARGET="_blank">Zechariah 14:4). The term "rapture," from the expression "caught up" (1 Thessalonians 4:17)," TARGET="_blank">1 Thessalonians 4:17), literally means "to snatch away" "The Lord Himself" (verse 16) comes to catch away into the air both the resurrected and living believers to "be with the Lord" (see John 14:3)," TARGET="_blank">John 14:3), for He has "not appointed us to wrath" (ch.5:9, 1:10, and Romans 5:9)." TARGET="_blank">Romans 5:9). In contrast, at His return to earth, the Lord comes accompanied by His saints (Zechariah 14:5," TARGET="_blank">Zechariah 14:5, Revelation 19:14)" TARGET="_blank">Revelation 19:14) and "His mighty angels" (2 Thessalonians 1:7)." TARGET="_blank">2 Thessalonians 1:7). At this time, He executes wrath, "taking vengeance on them that know not God" (2 Thessalonians 1:8)." TARGET="_blank">2 Thessalonians 1:8).

Another distinction in 1 Thessalonians is that Paul saw the Rapture as imminent; it could happen even while he wrote, since "we which are alive" (4:15, 17) included himself. He says the Thessalonians were presently waiting for "His Son from heaven" (1:10, see Titus 2:13)." TARGET="_blank">Titus 2:13). Again, in contrast the return to earth requires fulfilled signs (Matthew 24:3, 6, 15, 21, 29-30)" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 24:3, 6, 15, 21, 29-30) before it will occur. It could not happen today. In addition, the expression, "the coming of the Son of Man" is linked only to His earthly return. Further, the change in both sleeping and living saints at the Rapture (1 Corinthians 15:51-53)" TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 15:51-53) was a mystery revealed only in the N.T. It had not been prophesied in O.T. portions regarding our Lord's return to earth.

S. Thompson
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What is the difference between the parable of the talents and the pounds?

In Matthew 25," TARGET="_blank">Matthew 25, the Lord says to the faithful servants, “Well done!” but in Luke 19," TARGET="_blank">Luke 19, only “Well!” There must be a difference intended. What is it?

The difference is only in the translation, for it is the same word in the Greek in either case—the commendatory adverb, “EU,” “Well !“ Perhaps, “It is well,” would do in both places. This question suggests another which is very interesting, but not so easily answered.

What is the difference between the two parables?

Nothing but the most superficial reading can fail to note that a wide difference exists. In Matthew 25," TARGET="_blank">Matthew 25, there are three servants; in Luke, ten. In Matthew the sums entrusted vary, five talents, two and one; in Luke each servant receives the same, one pound or mina. In Matthew the faithful servants gain proportionately to the talents received, the one who had received five doubles it, and so with the recipient of two. In Luke the sums gained vary from ten to one.

In the two Gospels, the unfaithful servant received different treatment; in Matthew he is cast into “outer darkness,” in other words, he is a lost soul; in Luke all reward is withheld and his pound taken from him and given to him that had gained ten.

There is a fourth and very important difference, which throw light on the interpretation of the parables; in Matthew there are only two classes—the faithful and unfaithful servants; in Luke there is a third and distinct class—the citizens who hated their Lord, and were dealt with in condign judgment at His coming. This indicates, I believe, the true key to the parables. In Matthew, the three servants include profession, in fact all men, as we might say—three divisions of humanity, the Jew, the Gentile, and the Church of God. They have all received some talent from God, for which they must give account to Him. A man does not escape responsibility by refusing it.

Each man, godly and ungodly alike, will be held responsible for his talents, his faculties of mind, education, privileges, opportunities; and while no one will be saved by these things, there will be a reward for having by grace used them for God. On the other hand, there will be judgment on those “who have not,” corresponding to the rebellious citizens of Luke. In the case of the ten servants, they all start with the same amount—a pound. What exactly this corresponds to is uncertain, perhaps the life which each one has to live and make the most of for God. They will be rewarded in proportion to their faithfulness. The unfaithful one is not consigned to the place of punishment, but he is so far deprived of the opportunity of future service, from which it seems evident that the Lord’s servants are qualifying in this world for their service in the next.

W.H.

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What is the sin of "railing"?

What is railing as referred to in 1 Corinthians 5:11" TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 5:11?

In practice, the issue of railing has been one of the most difficult problems to handle. The accusation of railing has been abused at times. An answer to this question requires great care and the fear of God.

The noun translated "railer" in 1 Corinthians 5:11" TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 5:11 is used in only one other passage (1 Cor. 6:10)." TARGET="_blank">1 Cor. 6:10). The related noun, "railing," appears twice in 1 Peter 3:9" TARGET="_blank">1 Peter 3:9 ("not rendering . . . railing for railing") and once in 1 Timothy 5: 14," TARGET="_blank">1 Timothy 5: 14, translated "speak reproachfully." The related verb is always translated "revile" in its four uses (John 9:28;" TARGET="_blank">John 9:28; Acts 23:4;" TARGET="_blank">Acts 23:4; 1 Cor. 4:12;" TARGET="_blank">1 Cor. 4:12; 1 Pet. 2:23)." TARGET="_blank">1 Pet. 2:23). The other related word is translated "reviled again" (1 Pet. 2:23)." TARGET="_blank">1 Pet. 2:23).

A blending of the meanings given by various language helps (Vine, Thayer, Strong, Moulton and Milligan, and Kittel) and commentators indicates that railing is abusive, insulting language intended to wound, vilify, and defame another. It is persistent, purposeful character assassination.

Railing may involve some degree of truth (John 9:28;" TARGET="_blank">John 9:28; 1Tim. 5:14)," TARGET="_blank">1Tim. 5:14), but is directed in a derisive, destructive way. In Acts 23," TARGET="_blank">Acts 23, Paul understands that when the Scriptures forbid speaking evil of a ruler (v. 5), this includes railing (or reviling, v. 4). Therefore, although evil speaking may not be railing, all railing is evil speaking. The use of this family of words (railer, railing, revile) in the Septuagint (the Greek translation of the OT) adds another element to its meaning. The uses include hatred (Gen. 49:23)," TARGET="_blank">Gen. 49:23), striving or chiding - expressing disapproval (Ex. 21:18; 17:2, 7;" TARGET="_blank">Ex. 21:18; 17:2, 7; Num. 20:3, 13;" TARGET="_blank">Num. 20:3, 13; Deu. 33:8)," TARGET="_blank">Deu. 33:8), slander (Pro. 10:18)," TARGET="_blank">Pro. 10:18), brawling (25:24), and contention (26:21; 27:15). This seems to add the thought of contentiousness to the meaning of railing.

Contrasting with most of the other sins in the passage (1 Cor. 5:11)," TARGET="_blank">1 Cor. 5:11), railing requires a subjective judgement (made by spiritual leaders) as to when its continued practice constitutes the offender a railer.

D. Oliver
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Where was our Lord Jesus Christ between His death and resurrection?

CHRIST BETWEEN DEATH AND iESURRECTION
Where was our Lord Jesus Christ between His death and resurrection?

His body, as all four Gospels agree, was in Joseph’s new tomb; His soul, according to Acts 2: 27," TARGET="_blank">Acts 2: 27, 31 (with Psalm 16:10)," TARGET="_blank">Psalm 16:10), was in Hell (Greek = Hades; Hebrew = Sheol), a place or rather state, the significance of which in the Scriptures is much wider than in our present-day usage of that word.

The Revisers of the KJV, in their preface to the Old Testament, say that it means “the place of departed spirits,” and they warn the reader that although, in such passages as Genesis 37:35," TARGET="_blank">Genesis 37:35, they have left in the text the A.V. “grave,” yet it does not signify “the place of burial.”

Jacob (Genesis 37:35;" TARGET="_blank">Genesis 37:35; Genesis 42:38)" TARGET="_blank">Genesis 42:38) expected to go there at death; Job (Job 14:13-15)" TARGET="_blank">Job 14:13-15) requested that God would hide him there until the time of resurrection would come; whilst in other passages (such as Psalm 9:17;" TARGET="_blank">Psalm 9:17; Job 24:19," TARGET="_blank">Job 24:19, etc.) it is looked on as the portion of the wicked dead. We must therefore conceive of Hell as comprising two distinct regions or conditions, separated according to Luke 16:26" TARGET="_blank">Luke 16:26 by an impassable gulf, the one containing the souls of the righteous, and the other the souls of the unrighteous. Probably it is the latter which is spoken of as “the lowest hell” in Deuteronomy 32:22" TARGET="_blank">Deuteronomy 32:22 and Psa. 86:13; and doubtless it is the former which is called “Paradise” by our Lord in Luke 23. 43," TARGET="_blank">Luke 23. 43, when He said to the repentant and believing thief, “To-day, thou shalt be with Me in Paradise.” Luke 23" TARGET="_blank">Luke 23:
This last statement, taken with Acts 2:27," TARGET="_blank">Acts 2:27,31 shows that the Scriptural reply to our question, so far as the soul of the Lord Jesus is concerned, is that between death and resurrection He was in the region of Hell called Paradise, in which were also the souls of all saints who had died previously.

W.R.

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What is the significance of the terms

What is the significance of the terms “Kingdom of Heaven” (Matthew 32)" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 32) and “Kingdom of God” ("1 Corinthians 15:24)" TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 15:24)?

The expression “Kingdom of God” does not actually occur in 1 Corinthians 15:24," TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 15:24, but I believe the Kingdom there referred to is the same to all intents and purposes as that proclaimed by John the Baptist. Any godly Jew, versed in the Old Testament Scriptures and especially Daniel’s prophecy, knew that God had transferred the Kingdom from Israel, for their sins, to the four great Gentile Powers—Babylon, MedoPersia, Greece and Rome, the last of which was exercising its sway at the time of the Baptist’s mission. It would also be known from Daniel that the next event on the divine programme was to be the smiting and total destruction of the great-powers, regarded in their integrity as an image, by the stone cut out without hands, to be followed by the “setting up of a Kingdom which shall never be destroyed,” and “which shall not be left to other people,”—”it shall stand for ever.”

What else could a godly Jew understand then by John’s proclamation, “The kingdom of heaven is at hand,” but that God was about to introduce His, the fifth Kingdom, upon earth? For that, God had His King ready, but the King was also the Lamb of God—for atonement must be made, the only ground on which the Kingdom could ever be set up on this sin-stained earth. Had the Jewish nation received the post-pentecostal testimony to the resurrection of the Lord, God would have sent back the Lord Jesus to destroy His enemies and set up His millennial Kingdom.

It is that Kingdom to which reference is made in 1 Corinthians 15:24," TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 15:24, at the close of which the Lord will put down all His enemies—human and angelic—and then deliver up the Kingdom to God, purged of every “evil concurrent.” This will not be as is so often mistakenly asserted, in the sense of ceasing to reign, for the millennial reign will only be the first stage of the everlasting Kingdom of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ, but in the sense of restoring it to Him. Then no less than before, God will be (not become) All in All, and the Lord will reign as universal King. God’s throne will for ever be the throne of God and the Lamb.

W.H.

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