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william macdonald Here's the Difference - A Study of Important Biblical Distinctions including the Dispensations, Two Comings of Christ, the Church and Israel, Judicial and Parental Forgiveness, Double Fulfillments of Prophecy, Relationship and Fellowship.
How does a saved person have "the rightousness of God"? Print E-mail
To what does "the righteousness of God" (Romans 3:22) refer?

Gods court and law requires righteousness. Romans 3:10 flatly states that the defendant (man) has not satisfied the requirement. Man is guilty. "Through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus," the guilty is pronounced "right with God," justified (verse 24). The "propitiation" (verse 25) has satisfied the requirements of the court and the Judge pronounces that the guilty has a righteous standing. This righteous standing is the "righteousness of God" that the law didnt produce, but was "witnessed by the law and the prophets" (verse 21, see also Romans 4:1-8).

This "righteousness of God" is received by faith, apart from merit, solely through the blood of Christ (verse 22, with Romans 5:1; 3:24; 5:9). It is not an exchanged righteousness - a record of sin removed and a record of righteousness replacing it. It is a righteousness based on Gods requirements being met by the sacrifice. Neither is this an engrafted righteousness, as though we now possess an attribute of God, the righteousness of God. It is a righteous standing, declared and accounted by God and based on the satisfaction God has received from the sacrifice of our Lord Jesus Christ.

D. Oliver
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